"ing" Modifier Three Different Versions in OG????

This topic has expert replies
Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts
Posts: 17
Joined: Sun Jun 07, 2009 5:02 am

by panacea6565 » Tue Jul 21, 2009 10:09 pm
Hi Stacey
i have become your fan, you rock!!!
answer explanations and concept clarity is of paramount quality

Legendary Member
Posts: 1799
Joined: Wed Dec 24, 2008 3:03 am
Thanked: 36 times
Followed by:2 members

by goelmohit2002 » Wed Jul 22, 2009 4:27 am
panacea6565 wrote:Hi Stacey
i have become your fan, you rock!!!
answer explanations and concept clarity is of paramount quality
I second that...!!!

the best part is that the explanations of Stacey are just too simple to understand.......have great detpth...and whatever Stacey writes....we can accept the same blindly.

And that is not only related to SC explanations...that is the same with all the areas...whereever Stacey writes....CR,RC, GMAT strategy etc. etc....

Legendary Member
Posts: 1404
Joined: Tue May 20, 2008 6:55 pm
Thanked: 18 times
Followed by:2 members

by tanviet » Wed Jul 22, 2009 5:34 am
Stacey, pls, help with a problem ralative

this is question 70 in OG11

Displays of the aurora barealis, or "nouthern lights", can heat the atmosphere over the Arctic enough //to affect the trajectories of ballistic missiles, include// electric currents that can cause blackouts in some areas and corrosion in north-south pipelines

a,

b, that the trajectories of ballistic missiles are affected, induce

c, that it affects the trajectories of ballistic missiles, induces

d, that the trajectories of ballistic missiles are affected and induces

e, to affect the trajectories of ballistic missiles and induce

the exlanation is " the conjuction and is necessary to show that the two effects are equal and separate.When they(2 verbs) are saparated only by a comma, the second effect appears to be part of the first one, which is not true?

I am not clear the meaning implied when 2 verbs is separated by a comma (the second verb not ending in "ing"), pls, explain more

so, we have 2 verbs can be separated by " comma+ing", "comma +and" and "comma+do2". is that right we have 3 cases

Legendary Member
Posts: 1404
Joined: Tue May 20, 2008 6:55 pm
Thanked: 18 times
Followed by:2 members

by tanviet » Wed Jul 22, 2009 5:36 am
sory we have 3 case "comma+ing", "and do 2" and "comma+do2"

the second case dose not have comma

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 2228
Joined: Wed Dec 27, 2006 3:28 pm
Location: Montreal, Canada
Thanked: 639 times
Followed by:694 members
GMAT Score:780

by Stacey Koprince » Wed Jul 22, 2009 1:30 pm
Thanks Stacey. Can you please help understand why D is wrong ?
D says "meat a rarity." We don't have any conjunctions that connect this phrase to the rest (eg, "and" or something similar). When we have an isolated noun phrase set off by commas (such as "meat a rarity"), that's called an "appositive" and it is supposed to be a noun modifier. The purpose of an appositive is to name or rename the noun or noun phrase next to it.

Is that what's going on here? Nope. So it's not right. :)
Please note: I do not use the Private Messaging system! I will not see any PMs that you send to me!!

Stacey Koprince
GMAT Instructor
Director of Online Community
Manhattan GMAT

Contributor to Beat The GMAT!

Learn more about me

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 2228
Joined: Wed Dec 27, 2006 3:28 pm
Location: Montreal, Canada
Thanked: 639 times
Followed by:694 members
GMAT Score:780

by Stacey Koprince » Wed Jul 22, 2009 3:29 pm
what is the case with "without comma + prepostion"....does it modifies the

a) immediately preceding noun.
b) verb of the clause.
c) entire clause.
Could be anything - you have to check based upon the context.

The cat on the bed is asleep. --> "on the bed" modifies the noun "cat"

The class was taught by me. --> "by me" modifies the verb "taught" (or you can think of it as the entire clause "the class was taught" - generally, because adverbial modifiers modify the action, you can think of that as either the verb or the whole clause)
Please note: I do not use the Private Messaging system! I will not see any PMs that you send to me!!

Stacey Koprince
GMAT Instructor
Director of Online Community
Manhattan GMAT

Contributor to Beat The GMAT!

Learn more about me

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 2228
Joined: Wed Dec 27, 2006 3:28 pm
Location: Montreal, Canada
Thanked: 639 times
Followed by:694 members
GMAT Score:780

by Stacey Koprince » Wed Jul 22, 2009 3:36 pm
the exlanation is " the conjuction and is necessary to show that the two effects are equal and separate.When they(2 verbs) are saparated only by a comma, the second effect appears to be part of the first one, which is not true?

I am not clear the meaning implied when 2 verbs is separated by a comma (the second verb not ending in "ing"), pls, explain more
The original sentence cannot have a comma and then the word "induce" - which I'm guessing is what it's supposed to be. (You wrote "include" in the original sentence and "induce" in answer choice A. For SC questions, it's really important to proof your post before you actually post it!)

I can run fast enough to affect the spin of the Earth, induce a heat wave.

So, can I run fast enough to (1) affect something and (2) induce something else? If yes, then the sentence might read: I can run fast enough to affect the spin of the Earth and induce a heat wave. So, I'm so fast that these two separate things happen.

Or can I run fast enough to affect the spin, which then induces a heat wave? If so, then the sentence might read: I can run fast enough to affect the spin of the Earth, inducing a heat wave.

One or the other - but not "Earth, induce."
Please note: I do not use the Private Messaging system! I will not see any PMs that you send to me!!

Stacey Koprince
GMAT Instructor
Director of Online Community
Manhattan GMAT

Contributor to Beat The GMAT!

Learn more about me

Legendary Member
Posts: 1799
Joined: Wed Dec 24, 2008 3:03 am
Thanked: 36 times
Followed by:2 members

by goelmohit2002 » Thu Jul 23, 2009 12:17 pm
Stacey Koprince wrote:The purpose of an appositive is to name or rename the noun or noun phrase next to it.
Hi Stacey,

Sorry could not get this...

Do you mean to say tell more about the noun/noun phrase preceding the appositives ?

What do you mean by name/rename can you please elaborate a bit ?

Thanks
Mohit

Legendary Member
Posts: 1404
Joined: Tue May 20, 2008 6:55 pm
Thanked: 18 times
Followed by:2 members

by tanviet » Thu Jul 23, 2009 8:19 pm
duongthang wrote:Stacey, pls, help with a problem ralative

this is question 70 in OG11

Displays of the aurora barealis, or "nouthern lights", can heat the atmosphere over the Arctic enough //to affect the trajectories of ballistic missiles, include// electric currents that can cause blackouts in some areas and corrosion in north-south pipelines

a,

b, that the trajectories of ballistic missiles are affected, induce

c, that it affects the trajectories of ballistic missiles, induces

d, that the trajectories of ballistic missiles are affected and induces

e, to affect the trajectories of ballistic missiles and induce

the exlanation is " the conjuction and is necessary to show that the two effects are equal and separate.When they(2 verbs) are saparated only by a comma, the second effect appears to be part of the first one, which is not true?

I am not clear the meaning implied when 2 verbs is separated by a comma (the second verb not ending in "ing"), pls, explain more

so, we have 2 verbs can be separated by " comma+ing", "comma +and" and "comma+do2". is that right we have 3 cases
thank you Stacey. I am grateful to you

the question is correct as I wrote it.

OG said that "when they (2 verbs) are separated only by a comma, the second effect appears to be part of the first one,..."

pls, explain to me the meaning when 2 verbs are separated by only a comma. pls, see the Og explanation

pls, explain to me the meaning of the construction : " do 1 and do 2 " and "do 1 , doing 2"

we have 3 constructions. pls explain.

Legendary Member
Posts: 1799
Joined: Wed Dec 24, 2008 3:03 am
Thanked: 36 times
Followed by:2 members

by goelmohit2002 » Fri Jul 24, 2009 5:42 am
Stacey Koprince wrote:
what is the case with "without comma + prepostion"....does it modifies the

a) immediately preceding noun.
b) verb of the clause.
c) entire clause.
Could be anything - you have to check based upon the context.

The cat on the bed is asleep. --> "on the bed" modifies the noun "cat"

The class was taught by me. --> "by me" modifies the verb "taught" (or you can think of it as the entire clause "the class was taught" - generally, because adverbial modifiers modify the action, you can think of that as either the verb or the whole clause)
Hi Stacey,

Many thanks for telling about the without comma + preposition modifier....

Can you please tell what is the case with hyphen modifier...does it modify the

a) immediately preceding noun.
b) verb of the clause.
c) entire clause.

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 2228
Joined: Wed Dec 27, 2006 3:28 pm
Location: Montreal, Canada
Thanked: 639 times
Followed by:694 members
GMAT Score:780

by Stacey Koprince » Fri Jul 24, 2009 6:29 am
Do you mean to say tell more about the noun/noun phrase preceding the appositives ?

What do you mean by name/rename can you please elaborate a bit ?
The dog, a Golden Retriever, is yellow.

"a Golden Retriever" is an appositive - it's a noun that "renames" the word "dog" (in this case, telling us what kind of dog).

The Golden Retriever, a dog with a yellow coat, is a popular breed.

"a dog with a yellow coat" is an appositive. This time, it's defining "A Golden Retriever."
Please note: I do not use the Private Messaging system! I will not see any PMs that you send to me!!

Stacey Koprince
GMAT Instructor
Director of Online Community
Manhattan GMAT

Contributor to Beat The GMAT!

Learn more about me

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 2228
Joined: Wed Dec 27, 2006 3:28 pm
Location: Montreal, Canada
Thanked: 639 times
Followed by:694 members
GMAT Score:780

by Stacey Koprince » Fri Jul 24, 2009 6:36 am
OG said that "when they (2 verbs) are separated only by a comma, the second effect appears to be part of the first one,..."

pls, explain to me the meaning when 2 verbs are separated by only a comma. pls, see the Og explanation

pls, explain to me the meaning of the construction : " do 1 and do 2 " and "do 1 , doing 2"
The OG should also have said that when you have 2 verbs separated only by a comma and the second one is in conjugated form, you just can't do that period.

She is at the store, buy milk. That's not an acceptable sentence because the verb "buy" is in conjugated form but is separated from the rest of the sentence only by a comma. The implication is that the "buy milk" portion has something to do with the first part of the sentence (see example 2 below), but even then, this is still not in the correct form.

She is at the store, buying milk. "Buying" is in participle form; it's not acting as a verb in this sentence. Instead, it is indicating a modifier that has something to do with or is a consequence of the main clause. Why is she at the store? She's buying milk.

She went to the store, and she bought milk. These two things are now separate actions - both things that "she" did, but separate from each other. Maybe she went to the store yesterday and maybe she bought milk three days ago from some other store. We don't know.
Please note: I do not use the Private Messaging system! I will not see any PMs that you send to me!!

Stacey Koprince
GMAT Instructor
Director of Online Community
Manhattan GMAT

Contributor to Beat The GMAT!

Learn more about me

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 2228
Joined: Wed Dec 27, 2006 3:28 pm
Location: Montreal, Canada
Thanked: 639 times
Followed by:694 members
GMAT Score:780

by Stacey Koprince » Fri Jul 24, 2009 6:38 am
Can you please tell what is the case with hyphen modifier...does it modify the

a) immediately preceding noun.
b) verb of the clause.
c) entire clause.
Most often, hyphen modifiers are noun modifiers, but I would really need to see the specific example.

Also, hyphens are not very common on the test.
Please note: I do not use the Private Messaging system! I will not see any PMs that you send to me!!

Stacey Koprince
GMAT Instructor
Director of Online Community
Manhattan GMAT

Contributor to Beat The GMAT!

Learn more about me

Legendary Member
Posts: 1799
Joined: Wed Dec 24, 2008 3:03 am
Thanked: 36 times
Followed by:2 members

by goelmohit2002 » Fri Jul 24, 2009 6:45 am
Stacey Koprince wrote:
Can you please tell what is the case with hyphen modifier...does it modify the

a) immediately preceding noun.
b) verb of the clause.
c) entire clause.
Most often, hyphen modifiers are noun modifiers, but I would really need to see the specific example.

Also, hyphens are not very common on the test.
Hi Stacey,

Kindly look at the following thread please...where hyphen is tested:

https://www.beatthegmat.com/shark-modifi ... 41458.html

Thanks
Mohit

Legendary Member
Posts: 1799
Joined: Wed Dec 24, 2008 3:03 am
Thanked: 36 times
Followed by:2 members

by goelmohit2002 » Fri Jul 24, 2009 10:52 am
Stacey Koprince wrote:
Do you mean to say tell more about the noun/noun phrase preceding the appositives ?

What do you mean by name/rename can you please elaborate a bit ?
The dog, a Golden Retriever, is yellow.

"a Golden Retriever" is an appositive - it's a noun that "renames" the word "dog" (in this case, telling us what kind of dog).

The Golden Retriever, a dog with a yellow coat, is a popular breed.

"a dog with a yellow coat" is an appositive. This time, it's defining "A Golden Retriever."
Thanks a lot Stacey...I too had the same thought....basically noun modifier(Appositive) tells more about the noun adjacent to it...

It may rename it...or can tell more about the same.....