So, yes, in a setup where you have a noun that is modifying a gerund, you could put that noun in the form of a possessiven noun (that is, turn it into an adjective) in order to modify the other noun (the gerund).Can you please look at the following link....looks like people are having different opinion....
https://www.beatthegmat.com/gerund-being ... tml#135844
Can you please tell what indeed is the case ?
This is not wrong grammatically, necessarily. It's just almost always considered "awkward" by both the GMAT and most of our ears.
I really dislike the problem at the above link. On the real GMAT, I think the correct answer would have said something more like "Any allegations of John's involvement in..." as the real GMAT generally tries to avoid the "possessive noun + gerund" setup. (Not always, but most of the time - just like it mostly avoids using "being.")
That problem also makes the distinction in some choices of using the article "a" before the word "choice" and sometimes dropping the article. That also seems atypical of the GMAT to me.
I really, really would not study the problem at the above link.