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So much confused...Bharati Mukherjee

Expert replies
by stucash » Sat Jan 09, 2010 6:19 pm
Being a United States citizen since 1988 and born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee has lived in England and Canada, and first came to the United States in 1961 to study at the Iowa Writers' Workshop.
(A) Being a United States citizen since 1988 and born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee has
(B) Having been a United States citizen since 1988, she was born in Calcutta in 1940; author Bharati Mukherjee
(C) Born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee became a United States citizen in 1988; she has
(D) Being born in Calcutta in 1940 and having been a United States citizen since 1988, author Bharati Mukherjee
(E) Having been born in Calcutta in 1940 and being a United States citizen since 1988, author Bharati Mukherjee

OA:C

Ive seen you guys explaned this one, but I found no explanation about the word "came". Maybe I missed somthin'.....

I think C is right, but wut im still confused is C used present perfect, then why it kept "came"? should be "come" if apply parallelism.

guys plz point out wut I missed......
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Source: — Sentence Correction |

by mehravikas » Thu Jan 14, 2010 3:40 pm
The usage of "has lived" implies an event that occured in the past but is still true today.

For example - I have been to France - Means I am talking about the past but I am able to use "have been" because it is true till date.

stucash wrote:Being a United States citizen since 1988 and born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee has lived in England and Canada, and first came to the United States in 1961 to study at the Iowa Writers' Workshop.
(A) Being a United States citizen since 1988 and born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee has
(B) Having been a United States citizen since 1988, she was born in Calcutta in 1940; author Bharati Mukherjee
(C) Born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee became a United States citizen in 1988; she has
(D) Being born in Calcutta in 1940 and having been a United States citizen since 1988, author Bharati Mukherjee
(E) Having been born in Calcutta in 1940 and being a United States citizen since 1988, author Bharati Mukherjee

OA:C

Ive seen you guys explaned this one, but I found no explanation about the word "came". Maybe I missed somthin'.....

I think C is right, but wut im still confused is C used present perfect, then why it kept "came"? should be "come" if apply parallelism.

guys plz point out wut I missed......
Join the discussion

by A.Kiran » Sat Jan 16, 2010 6:01 pm
She has ???


Stacey says that: has / have is used for the Possession.
has been/ have been is used for the - still being true.


she has lived in England ?

how can this sentence be right ? she has lived ???? how can she posession lived ?
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by mehravikas » Sat Jan 16, 2010 6:49 pm
I would say that it implies the same meaning without "been".

Example: Kiran has lived in Eurpoe - That is true and will hold true forever...

A.Kiran wrote:She has ???


Stacey says that: has / have is used for the Possession.
has been/ have been is used for the - still being true.


she has lived in England ?

how can this sentence be right ? she has lived ???? how can she posession lived ?
Join the discussion

by A.Kiran » Sun Jan 17, 2010 3:35 pm
how can u say that ? how do you identify that ?
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by mmon » Sun Jan 17, 2010 11:26 pm
That really keeps me thinking too. nice observation stucash.
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by mehravikas » Mon Jan 18, 2010 12:45 am
not able to understand what you want to know?
A.Kiran wrote:how can u say that ? how do you identify that ?
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by A.Kiran » Mon Jan 18, 2010 9:47 am
has+ ed


is what ? what it says ? is it right ?
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by DanaJ » Mon Jan 18, 2010 11:33 am
The verb to have + the -ed form of another verb make up the Present Perfect tense, simple form. This tense expresses a past action, but we don't know exactly when it happened.

I have seen you around here quite a few times.

I have studied in Portugal.

For more info regarding the Present Perfect, check out this webpage.
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by A.Kiran » Mon Jan 18, 2010 11:42 am
thats right


Has+ed

is equal to the meaning of has been + ing ?????????????????????????????
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by DanaJ » Mon Jan 18, 2010 12:56 pm
No, the second form you mention is the Present Perfect Continuous - an action that occurred in the past and goes on until the present moment.
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by A.Kiran » Mon Jan 18, 2010 1:09 pm
oh..

so Has+ed < tells that the event started in the past and completed by now>

Has+ been+ ing < tells that event happened in the past is still true/ happening>

Has + been + ed ??? is what then ??????
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by Stacey Koprince » Thu Jan 21, 2010 3:39 pm
Received a PM asking me to reply to the last post.

present perfect tense: has/have + past participle. The action began in the past and either continues to the present or is still true in the present.
For example:
I have lived in Montreal for about a year. (this began in the past and is still going on today - I still live there.)
I have never been to Portugal. (this "began" / was true in the past and is still true today.)

present perfect progressive, according to OG11: "describes something that began in the past, continues into the present, and may continue into the future." This isn't often correct on the GMAT; most of the time, it's acceptable to use present progressive or simple present, and simpler tenses (when used correctly, of course) are preferred on the GMAT.
For example:
I have been studying for hours. (I started in the past, I'm still doing it now, and it doesn't sound like I'm stopping now, which means I'll be continuing to do it in the future.)

Also, I scrolled up and saw this comment:
Stacey says that: has / have is used for the Possession.
I'm not sure where that belief came from. Can you elaborate? I'm guessing that you interpreted something I said previously in the above way, but it is not the case that has / have MUST be used to indicate that somebody possesses something.
Please note: I do not use the Private Messaging system! I will not see any PMs that you send to me!!

Stacey Koprince
GMAT Instructor
Director of Online Community
Manhattan GMAT

Contributor to Beat The GMAT!

Learn more about me
Join the discussion

by mehravikas » Thu Jan 21, 2010 3:53 pm
Hi Stacey,

I have a post above, I am copying it here. Please let me know if my assumption is correct.

I would say that it implies the same meaning without "been".

Example: Kiran has lived in Eurpoe - That is true and will hold true forever...

Thanks,
Vikas
Stacey Koprince wrote:Received a PM asking me to reply to the last post.

present perfect tense: has/have + past participle. The action began in the past and either continues to the present or is still true in the present.
For example:
I have lived in Montreal for about a year. (this began in the past and is still going on today - I still live there.)
I have never been to Portugal. (this "began" / was true in the past and is still true today.)

present perfect progressive, according to OG11: "describes something that began in the past, continues into the present, and may continue into the future." This isn't often correct on the GMAT; most of the time, it's acceptable to use present progressive or simple present, and simpler tenses (when used correctly, of course) are preferred on the GMAT.
For example:
I have been studying for hours. (I started in the past, I'm still doing it now, and it doesn't sound like I'm stopping now, which means I'll be continuing to do it in the future.)

Also, I scrolled up and saw this comment:
Stacey says that: has / have is used for the Possession.
I'm not sure where that belief came from. Can you elaborate? I'm guessing that you interpreted something I said previously in the above way, but it is not the case that has / have MUST be used to indicate that somebody possesses something.
Join the discussion

by Stacey Koprince » Thu Jan 21, 2010 7:40 pm
I would say that it implies the same meaning without "been".

Example: Kiran has lived in Eurpoe - That is true and will hold true forever...
What implies the same meaning without "been"? Do you mean "Kiran has lived in Europe" and "Kiran has been living in Europe" have the same meaning? Or do you mean something else?

"Kiran has lived in Europe" tells us nothing at all about when in the past Kiran lived in Europe. It could have been ten years ago or yesterday.

"Kiran has been living in Europe" implies that Kiran still lives in Europe right now and may continue to do so in future.
Please note: I do not use the Private Messaging system! I will not see any PMs that you send to me!!

Stacey Koprince
GMAT Instructor
Director of Online Community
Manhattan GMAT

Contributor to Beat The GMAT!

Learn more about me
Join the discussion