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So much confused...Bharati Mukherjee

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by A.Kiran » Thu Jan 21, 2010 10:35 pm
https://wiki.answers.com/Q/How_and_where ... in_English


Stacey:

I am sorry. You did not say that.
I read it online and I have noted on my notes. When i saw that, I thought you have said that. Generally in my notes, i used to fill with the rules you say.

It was a blunder.



Is the above link wrong in its meaning ? Has/ Have ? Does it say about pocession ?

If so has/have + ed should be logically be related to possession. Right ?
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by mehravikas » Fri Jan 22, 2010 1:46 am
Yes same meaning in the sense that both "has" and "has been" indicate that the events are true, for example:

kiran has lived in Eorupe
Kiran has been living in Europe

both are true. 1st indicates an event of past but it is still true
second indicates that kiran is living in Europe and may continue
Stacey Koprince wrote:
I would say that it implies the same meaning without "been".

Example: Kiran has lived in Eurpoe - That is true and will hold true forever...
What implies the same meaning without "been"? Do you mean "Kiran has lived in Europe" and "Kiran has been living in Europe" have the same meaning? Or do you mean something else?

"Kiran has lived in Europe" tells us nothing at all about when in the past Kiran lived in Europe. It could have been ten years ago or yesterday.

"Kiran has been living in Europe" implies that Kiran still lives in Europe right now and may continue to do so in future.
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by mehravikas » Fri Jan 22, 2010 1:46 am
Yes same meaning in the sense that both "has" and "has been" indicate that the events are true, for example:

kiran has lived in Eorupe
Kiran has been living in Europe

both are true. 1st indicates an event of past but it is still true
second indicates that kiran is living in Europe and may continue
Stacey Koprince wrote:
I would say that it implies the same meaning without "been".

Example: Kiran has lived in Eurpoe - That is true and will hold true forever...
What implies the same meaning without "been"? Do you mean "Kiran has lived in Europe" and "Kiran has been living in Europe" have the same meaning? Or do you mean something else?

"Kiran has lived in Europe" tells us nothing at all about when in the past Kiran lived in Europe. It could have been ten years ago or yesterday.

"Kiran has been living in Europe" implies that Kiran still lives in Europe right now and may continue to do so in future.
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by mehravikas » Fri Jan 22, 2010 1:46 am
Yes same meaning in the sense that both "has" and "has been" indicate that the events are true, for example:

kiran has lived in Eorupe
Kiran has been living in Europe

both are true. 1st indicates an event of past but it is still true
second indicates that kiran is living in Europe and may continue
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by mmslf75 » Fri Jan 22, 2010 2:21 am
to go by what school grammar says :

HAS BEEN LIVING is PRESENT PERFECT CONTINUOUS
HAS LIVED is PRESENT PERFECT
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by VikingWarrior » Sat Jan 23, 2010 2:34 pm
harati Mukherjee has lived in England and Canada, and first came to the United States in 1961 to study at the Iowa Writers' Workshop.
(A) Being a United States citizen since 1988 and born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee has
(B) Having been a United States citizen since 1988, she was born in Calcutta in 1940; author Bharati Mukherjee
(C) Born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee became a United States citizen in 1988; she has
(D) Being born in Calcutta in 1940 and having been a United States citizen since 1988, author Bharati Mukherjee
(E) Having been born in Calcutta in 1940 and being a United States citizen since 1988, author Bharati Mukherjee

OA：C

Ive seen you guys explaned this one, but I found no explanation about the word "came". Maybe I missed somthin'.....

I think C is right, but wut im still confused is C used present perfect, then why it kept "came"? should be "come" if apply parallelism.

guys plz point out wut I missed......
C is correct, and you agree...Parallelism:

1. She has lived in England and Canada
2. She first came to US ... OR She had first come to US we prefer the use of simple past.

I hope you get the point I'm trying to make :)
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by mmon » Sat Jan 23, 2010 5:38 pm
stucash wrote:Being a United States citizen since 1988 and born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee has lived in England and Canada, and first came to the United States in 1961 to study at the Iowa Writers' Workshop.
(A) Being a United States citizen since 1988 and born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee has
(B) Having been a United States citizen since 1988, she was born in Calcutta in 1940; author Bharati Mukherjee
(C) Born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee became a United States citizen in 1988; she has
(D) Being born in Calcutta in 1940 and having been a United States citizen since 1988, author Bharati Mukherjee
(E) Having been born in Calcutta in 1940 and being a United States citizen since 1988, author Bharati Mukherjee

OA：C

Ive seen you guys explaned this one, but I found no explanation about the word "came". Maybe I missed somthin'.....

I think C is right, but wut im still confused is C used present perfect, then why it kept "came"? should be "come" if apply parallelism.

guys plz point out wut I missed......
can anybody please explain also how does came fit in here ?

she has lived ..., and first came.. ? how are they parallel ?
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by girish3131 » Fri Jan 29, 2010 4:18 am
wat's the FINAL ANS of this ques... ?
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by Stacey Koprince » Fri Jan 29, 2010 10:03 am
https://wiki.answers.com/Q/How_and_where ... in_English
Stacey:

I am sorry. You did not say that.
I read it online and I have noted on my notes. When i saw that, I thought you have said that. Generally in my notes, i used to fill with the rules you say.

It was a blunder.

Is the above link wrong in its meaning ? Has/ Have ? Does it say about pocession ? If so has/have + ed should be logically be related to possession. Right ?
The above link is generally right, but just not precise enough. If you use "to have" in simple present, followed by an object, then you are typically trying to say the subject possesses the object, yes. She has a cold. You have a dog. But what about "I have to work today"? I don't possess "to work today." So it does depend upon the construction of the sentence.

That link also says that the meaning changes if you are using the verb "to have" as part of a more complex construction (such as present perfect). Then, no, you are not typically indicating possession. She has grown four inches since August. I have liked cheese ever since I first tried it. No possession in either of these examples.
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by A.Kiran » Fri Jan 29, 2010 1:54 pm
Thanks Stacey for this.
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by sangeethmani » Fri Jan 29, 2010 5:47 pm
If you say "has lived in Paris" doesnt it mean the fact that he lived in Paris is true. Not necessarily he still lives there?
And if I say "Has been living in Paris " means that he has lived in Paris and continues to do so?

please clarify Stacey I am confused!
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by mehravikas » Sat Jan 30, 2010 1:57 pm
I guess you are right. Stacey can you please confirm?

sangeethmani wrote:If you say "has lived in Paris" doesnt it mean the fact that he lived in Paris is true. Not necessarily he still lives there?
And if I say "Has been living in Paris " means that he has lived in Paris and continues to do so?

please clarify Stacey I am confused!
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by Stacey Koprince » Mon Feb 01, 2010 7:51 pm
If you say "has lived in Paris" doesnt it mean the fact that he lived in Paris is true. Not necessarily he still lives there?
And if I say "Has been living in Paris " means that he has lived in Paris and continues to do so?
Yes!
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