BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course

Redeem

Target Test Prep · GMAT

Choose how you want to prepare

Learn live with an expert or move at your own pace. Every option includes the complete TTP study system.

★★★★★5.0559 reviews
GMATLiveTeach 7 seats left
Chris Peckover
NEXT LIVE COHORT

Oct 13 to Jan 7, 2027

with Chris Peckover

Schedule
Tue, Thu · 8:00 to 10:00 PM ET
Included
40 live hours + 6 months of GMAT OnDemand
  • Live instruction and real-time questions
  • Class recordings and assigned practice
View class & enroll
Limited cohort · enrollment openTarget Test Prep
EALiveTeach 5 seats left
Logan Thompson
EXECUTIVE ASSESSMENT

Sep 6 to Dec 6, 2026

with Logan Thompson

Schedule
Sun · 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM ET
Included
40 hours of live online classes plus six months of access to the complete TTP EA OnDemand course.
  • 165+ EA Score Guarantee
  • 4,100+ Quant, Verbal, and Integrated Reasoning practice questions
  • 400+ hours of in-depth video lessons
  • 3,000+ step-by-step video solutions
View EA class & enroll
Limited cohort · enrollment openTarget Test Prep
GMATOnDemand Start anytime
SELF-PACED MASTERCLASS

Target Test Prep GMAT OnDemand

Complete access from day one. Study on your schedule.

715+ score guarantee
$0to start then $127/mo
  • Personalized study plan and analytics
  • Thousands of lessons and practice questions

Compare the format, schedule, and included access before enrolling. Prices and seat counts shown reflect the supplied offer details.

Work Problem

Expert replies
by neya » Thu Oct 27, 2011 6:18 pm
20 women can finish a job in 20 days. After each day, one woman is replaced by a man or a boy alternatively starting with a man.Man is twice efficient and boy is half efficient as a woman,On which day does the job get completed??
Join the discussion
Source: — Problem Solving |

by shankar.ashwin » Thu Oct 27, 2011 6:50 pm
day 1 - 20 women working - 1/20th of the work is done.

day 2 - 19W & 1M = 19/400+1/200 = 21/400

day 3 - 18W,1M & 1B = 18/400+1/200+1/800 = 41/800

day 4 - 17W,2M & 1B = 17/400+2/200+1/800 = 43/800

Since on alternate days men and boys are added, there is a similar sequence here.

Writing the above terms in common denominator (800);

40/800 + 42/800 + 41/800 + 43/800 + ......... = 1


We know it will take less than 20 days as the fraction keeps increasing.

Edited

I agree with Vivian, it should be 18 days. (solved it using AP for alternate terms)


Pretty sure this would not be be a GMAT problem, too many calculations
Last edited by shankar.ashwin on Thu Oct 27, 2011 7:44 pm, edited 1 time in total.
Join the discussion

by VivianKerr » Thu Oct 27, 2011 7:11 pm
I would agree that this is outside the scope of GMAT. Just by counting, however, I got 18 days, since 17 would not be enough to "complete."
Vivian Kerr
GMAT Rockstar, Tutor
https://www.GMATrockstar.com
https://www.yelp.com/biz/gmat-rockstar-los-angeles

Former Kaplan and Grockit instructor, freelance GMAT content creator, now offering affordable, effective, Skype-tutoring for the GMAT at $150/hr. Contact: [email protected]

Thank you for all the "thanks" and "follows"! :-)
Join the discussion