From Kaplan

NOT ONE OF THE MEN AND WOMEN WHO DESIGNED THE X WAS AWARE THAT ITS APPLICATION WOULD BE AS FAR REACHING AS HAS BEEN THE CASE.


Also what about the rule one of the plural noun that/who plural verb.

Why does it not apply in this case.

What if the sentence started with One and Not one.

As of this morning, none of my friends have been able to solve the puzzle contained in the last week's newspaper.

(a) none of my friends have been able to solve
(b) none of my friends was able to solve
(c) not one of my friends has yet been able to solve
(d) none of my friends has been able to solve
(e) nobody among my friends have solved

Kaplan says that the answer is (d) but I think otherwise. According to Kaplan 800 none is singular (What? I thought none was a SANAM pronoun and hence can be singular or plural).

From another post to show what I am talking about.

Thanks
Khurram

I guess easiest if we can get examples to bettter understand.

Here are some tips.

None(pronoun) may specify a singular verb when 'none' can logically be constructed as singular(when 'not one' or 'no one' can be substituted for 'none')

'None of us wholly blameless'.....A plural verb should be used when 'none' applies to more than one(when 'no persons,not any of a group of persons or things' can be substituted for 'none')
E.g : None are more wretched than victims of natural disasters.

Look in 1st example.

Not one can be replaced by none pronoun...so according to above rule it can take singular verb.

In another example.

None of my friends can be replaced with no one of my friends so again it should take singular verb.

I hope I have cleared your doubt.

Thanks

It is starting to make sense

What about

One of the Plural noun plural verb rule

How do I know when to apply it and when not to apply it.

Khurram

Stick to SANAM rule because it works on OG10 and OG11