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very basic doubt

Expert replies
by mehaksal » Wed Aug 29, 2012 9:02 am
What is the probability for a family with three children to have a boy and two girls (assuming the probability of having a boy or a girl is equal)?

a) 1/8
b) ¼
c) ½
d) 3/8
e) 5/8

I did tend to go this way :-
as only possibilities are 3G, 3B, 2G & 1B, 2B & 1G,
hence, 1/4, without going through 1/2 for boy and girl types...
I know this approach is very wrong, please help me in clearing such a basic doubt
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Source: — Problem Solving |

by Ian Stewart » Wed Aug 29, 2012 2:07 pm
1/4 isn't correct because it's more likely you'll have, say, 2 boys and 1 girl than it is that you'll have 3 boys. One (long, but easily manageable in two minutes) way to do the problem is to list all of the possible sequences of boys and girls:

BBB
BBG
BGB
GBB
BGG
GBG
GGB
GGG

There are 8 sequences, and in 3 of them we have exactly two girls, so the answer is 3/8.

There are faster ways to do these problems, which have been posted in this forum before, so I won't repeat them, but you might search for Stuart Kovinsky's post from a couple of years ago called something like "coin flip problems made easy".
For online GMAT math tutoring, or to buy my higher-level Quant books and problem sets, contact me at ianstewartgmat at gmail.com

ianstewartgmat.com
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by mehaksal » Wed Aug 29, 2012 10:50 pm
I understand the logic here, but does the sequence matter as well in this question?
I mean 2B and 1G can be in any sequence, so we consider only BBB,GGG,BBG and GGB..wt do u say abt it?
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