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by didieravoaka » Tue May 17, 2016 6:22 am
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I don't understand why we use the present perfect although the action is done "140,000 years ago"
Does someone can explain?
Thanks.
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by MartyMurray » Tue May 17, 2016 7:20 am
Marc, what you are looking at is an entire expression, thought to have lived.

Is this the alternative you propose? thought to had lived

I guess the expression, though to have lived, is an idiomatic one.

Meanwhile, even if you didn't like D, E has a clear issue.

whom is the subject of had lived. whom ... had lived does not make sense. It should be who ... had lived.
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by didieravoaka » Tue May 17, 2016 7:50 am
I agree Marty. Actually, I've noticed the "whom..." in the sentence but was confused. I also keep in mind that "thought to had lived" is an idiomatic expression.
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by MartyMurray » Tue May 17, 2016 10:14 am
didieravoaka wrote:I agree Marty. Actually, I've noticed the "whom..." in the sentence but was confused. I also keep in mind that "thought to had lived" is an idiomatic expression.
I take it you mean "thought to have lived".

One more way you won't get smoked next time!!!

Meanwhile, I think you would have been better off saying "I had noticed the 'whom'" or possibly, "I noticed the whom'".
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