The role of plunging - all thoughts are invited

This topic has expert replies
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 176
Joined: Thu Sep 22, 2011 5:32 am
Thanked: 5 times
Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging, the manufacturer has announced that it will cut production by closing its factories for two days a month.
A. Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging
B. Because of plunging prices for computer chips, which is due to an oversupply
C. Because computer chip prices have been sent plunging, which resulted from an oversupply
D. Due to plunging computer chip prices from an oversupply
E. Due to an oversupply, with the result that computer chip prices have been sent plunging
I have checked this questions in various forums and have seen different options posted as OA. I do not have the OA for this

Apart from understanding the reasons for the coorect OA and knowing the the correct OA, I also want to know the role of "plunging" in option C. I read in one of the forums that plunging is a modifier and hence "which" cannot refer to plunging. So which should refer to prices. My doubt is that the verb in the clause "computer chip prices have been sent plunging" is "have been sent" and the object of this verb is "plunging" so how can plunging be a modifier. Shouldn't all subjects and objects be nouns?

Please help

Regards,
Vishal
Source: — Sentence Correction |

User avatar
Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Posts: 50
Joined: Thu Dec 25, 2008 9:06 am
Thanked: 1 times

by k.pankaj.r » Sun Dec 11, 2011 1:53 am
IMO B

Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 176
Joined: Thu Sep 22, 2011 5:32 am
Thanked: 5 times

by vishal.pathak » Sun Dec 11, 2011 9:19 pm
k.pankaj.r wrote:IMO B
Neither have you addressed the core issue nor have you given an explaination of the answer. Your response serves no purpose

User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 102
Joined: Thu Jul 21, 2011 2:22 am
Location: Lahore, Pakistan
Thanked: 4 times
Followed by:1 members

by chufus » Mon Dec 12, 2011 12:04 am
There is a sequence of events here and GMAT normally respects the sequence of events. Especially when disturbing the sequence makes the sentence awkward.

1. There has been n oversupply of computer chips.
2. This has led to prices falling.
3. The manufacturer is therefore cutting production.

Now on to other core issues.

A. since Y "HAS" happened, X "HAS" done this. Everything seems in order
B. Sequence is out of order, awkward - OUT
C. Sequence again out of order, awkward - OUT
D. Sequence again out of order, awkward - OUT
E. "Due to" and "With the Result" - Repetition , redundancy - OUT

A seems the only plausible answer.

Whats the original answer?

Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 176
Joined: Thu Sep 22, 2011 5:32 am
Thanked: 5 times

by vishal.pathak » Mon Dec 12, 2011 1:13 am
chufus wrote:There is a sequence of events here and GMAT normally respects the sequence of events. Especially when disturbing the sequence makes the sentence awkward.
A. since Y "HAS" happened, X "HAS" done this. Everything seems in order
B. Sequence is out of order, awkward - OUT
C. Sequence again out of order, awkward - OUT
D. Sequence again out of order, awkward - OUT
E. "Due to" and "With the Result" - Repetition , redundancy - OUT

A seems the only plausible answer.

Whats the original answer?
Here r my views
going by the order of the given sentence is not a wise approach because the order of the original sentence may also be incorrect.
The general principle of order is similar to the more accepted law that the modifier should be as close as possible to the thing it modifies. I have not seen the law of orders stated anywhere by any of the experts. Please quote your source

Due to is same as caused by
Since we cannot substitute caused by in the sentence to make it more meaningful so d and e are definitely incorrect
I have serious doubts on the first three. I rejected b because I don't see any principal clause in it.I do not see a reason to select a over c or vice versa. I also have a doubt on the role of plunging in option c

Regards,
Vishal

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 15539
Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pm
Location: New York, NY
Thanked: 13060 times
Followed by:1906 members
GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Mon Dec 12, 2011 4:33 am
vishal.pathak wrote:Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging, the manufacturer has announced that it will cut production by closing its factories for two days a month.
A. Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging
B. Because of plunging prices for computer chips, which is due to an oversupply
C. Because computer chip prices have been sent plunging, which resulted from an oversupply
D. Due to plunging computer chip prices from an oversupply
E. Due to an oversupply, with the result that computer chip prices have been sent plunging
I have checked this questions in various forums and have seen different options posted as OA. I do not have the OA for this

Apart from understanding the reasons for the coorect OA and knowing the the correct OA, I also want to know the role of "plunging" in option C. I read in one of the forums that plunging is a modifier and hence "which" cannot refer to plunging. So which should refer to prices. My doubt is that the verb in the clause "computer chip prices have been sent plunging" is "have been sent" and the object of this verb is "plunging" so how can plunging be a modifier. Shouldn't all subjects and objects be nouns?

Please help

Regards,
Vishal
I posted an explanation for this SC here:

https://www.beatthegmat.com/og-sc-t50736.html

As for the role of PLUNGING in C:

Mary has been sent a gift.

In the sentence above, gift is the DIRECT OBJECT of sent. Mary is the INDIRECT OBJECT. The conveyed meaning is that A GIFT has been sent TO MARY.

Here is C:

Computer chip prices have been sent plunging.

If plunging here were the direct object of sent, then the conveyed meaning would be that PLUNGING has been sent TO COMPUTER CHIP PRICES. This interpretation makes no sense.
In C, plunging is not a noun but a MODIFIER describing HOW the prices have been sent. HOW have the prices been sent? They have been sent PLUNGING.
Since plunging is a modifier, it cannot serve as the antecedent of which.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.

As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.

For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3

Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 176
Joined: Thu Sep 22, 2011 5:32 am
Thanked: 5 times

by vishal.pathak » Sat Dec 17, 2011 12:54 am
GMATGuruNY wrote:
vishal.pathak wrote:Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging, the manufacturer has announced that it will cut production by closing its factories for two days a month.
A. Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging
B. Because of plunging prices for computer chips, which is due to an oversupply
C. Because computer chip prices have been sent plunging, which resulted from an oversupply
D. Due to plunging computer chip prices from an oversupply
E. Due to an oversupply, with the result that computer chip prices have been sent plunging
I have checked this questions in various forums and have seen different options posted as OA. I do not have the OA for this

Apart from understanding the reasons for the coorect OA and knowing the the correct OA, I also want to know the role of "plunging" in option C. I read in one of the forums that plunging is a modifier and hence "which" cannot refer to plunging. So which should refer to prices. My doubt is that the verb in the clause "computer chip prices have been sent plunging" is "have been sent" and the object of this verb is "plunging" so how can plunging be a modifier. Shouldn't all subjects and objects be nouns?

Please help

Regards,
Vishal
I posted an explanation for this SC here:

https://www.beatthegmat.com/og-sc-t50736.html

As for the role of PLUNGING in C:

Mary has been sent a gift.

In the sentence above, gift is the DIRECT OBJECT of sent. Mary is the INDIRECT OBJECT. The conveyed meaning is that A GIFT has been sent TO MARY.

Here is C:

Computer chip prices have been sent plunging.

If plunging here were the direct object of sent, then the conveyed meaning would be that PLUNGING has been sent TO COMPUTER CHIP PRICES. This interpretation makes no sense.
In C, plunging is not a noun but a MODIFIER describing HOW the prices have been sent. HOW have the prices been sent? They have been sent PLUNGING.
Since plunging is a modifier, it cannot serve as the antecedent of which.
Guru,

Your ability to convey the entire concept in such a concise manner is amazing

TAKE A BOW, MASTER

Regards,
Vishal

• Page 1 of 1