Teacher

Parents of some of the children in a particular class have claimed that the teacher is
not objective and favors his male students with higher grades. But the record shown
that 92% of the female students received a passing grade in this teacher's class. This
record demonstrates that the teacher has not discriminated against women when
assigning grades.
The argument above is flawed in that it ignored the possibility that
A. a large number of the teacher's student were in his class the previous year.
B. many teachers find it difffucult to be objective when assigning grades to male and
female students.
C. the evidence shows that more than 92% of the female students should have
received a passing grade.
D. the majority of tests written by female students and that have been rechecked by
another teacher were given a higher grade by the second teacher.
E. the teacher is biased against female students in the case of only some of the
subjects he teachers.

My take is D because if the majority of the women test papers were rechecked then, the reasoning fall apart. That mean there was a bias, and thats why so many test papers were rechecked by other teacher.

Conclusion: Teacher does not discriminate.

Evidence: 92% of females receive passing grade.

Assumption: Male percentage isn't markedly higher, the females aren't having to work harder to pass, "passing" doesn't show a wide gap between men/women

Question: What is a FLAW (use the assumptions)

Prediction: That "passing" could be a C-, whereas the males could be getting all A's (i.e. "passing" still allows for discrimination); that the 92% who passed should have passed anyway, so the teacher WAS discriminating even though % is high

IMO: C

We can fairly quickly narrow it down to C and D. So let's examine. What a second teacher would have given the tests is not relevant to the conclusion. We need something that is more closely tied to the argument itself, which focuses on the 92% passing rate for females as the BASIS for the claim of "no discrimination."

C is using that 92% passing rate as EVIDENCE for discrimination, and it identifies the main flaw here: that this 92% rate is not solid-proof that discrimination is not occurring.

vow .. that was close b/w C & D.

We can have a situation that even though 92% females passed, more could have passed..

Or that 92% is fine, but their grades should have been higher.

Now lowering the grades can have an effect of making higher grades less but still above pass marks, or taking it lower than passing ...

Is it because 'EVIDENCE' is mentioned that gives more weight to this option vs 'checking by another teacher' ?

OA is C

D requires too many assumptions on our part.

"D. the majority of tests written by female students and that have been rechecked by another teacher were given a higher grade by the second teacher."

In order for this to be the correct answer we need to assume that the other teacher is unbiased. Choice C does not rely on this but it flatly states that "the evidence" shows the girls deserved a higher rate of passing.

Choice D also makes the assumption that the males scores would not also be raised by the other teacher, after all, if the other teacher raised all of scores then it is not that the original teacher is biased, just grades lower than teacher #2.

We also have the problem with D that D mentions the tests that "have been rechecked." So how many is that? Did they recheck most of the tests or about 10 of them?

So you see, do not read to charitably! Look at the answer choice for what it really says. Question your own assumptions and not only those of the test writers.