Had a question on sureshbala's problem #1 in his 780+ thread...
Can we say that the angles opposite two equal chords are equal as well, under any circumstances?
Can we expand this, to say that if you have two triangles sharing a length, and one side in each triangle is equal to the other, that their opposing angles are equal as well?
For example, consider the following triangles sharing length AC (hope it attaches). If AD = BC, then BAC = ACD?
If that's the case, why was the circle needed in the solution?
Can we say that the angles opposite two equal chords are equal as well, under any circumstances?
Can we expand this, to say that if you have two triangles sharing a length, and one side in each triangle is equal to the other, that their opposing angles are equal as well?
For example, consider the following triangles sharing length AC (hope it attaches). If AD = BC, then BAC = ACD?
If that's the case, why was the circle needed in the solution?
You do not have the required permissions to view the files attached to this post.
