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Stuart Kovinsky ---- Could you please explain this

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by Chaitanya_1986 » Fri Apr 22, 2011 6:47 am
Iam referring this to your previous thread



https://www.beatthegmat.com/problem-solv ... tml#338529


Here in the solution given below


A=B+C+18; B+C=A/4
B+C=A-18; A/4=A-18 --> A=4A-72, A=72/3, A=24
OR
B=C=A/4
B+C=A/2; A-18=A/2 --> A=36

How he equated B=C in OR condition your explanation will do a lot!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
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by Stuart@KaplanGMAT » Fri Apr 22, 2011 6:58 am
Chaitanya_1986 wrote:Iam referring this to your previous thread



https://www.beatthegmat.com/problem-solv ... tml#338529


Here in the solution given below


A=B+C+18; B+C=A/4
B+C=A-18; A/4=A-18 --> A=4A-72, A=72/3, A=24
OR
B=C=A/4
B+C=A/2; A-18=A/2 --> A=36

How he equated B=C in OR condition your explanation will do a lot!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Hi,

first, here's the original question:
A has $18 more than what B & C together would have had if both B and C had 1/4 of what A has. How much does A have?

(A) 20

(B) 48

(C) 32

(D) 36

(E) 40
Second, I think (I didn't write the explanation that you posted, so I can't be sure!) that the person who wrote that explanation was trying to decide on the proper interpretation of the question.

Does "if both B and C had 1/4 of what A has" mean that they collectively (first solution) or individually (second solution) equal 1/4 of A?

The second interpretation is correct, which is why the math after the "OR" leads to the correct answer.

In other words, the proper way to interpret that condition is that each of B and C is equal to 1/4 of A, not that B+C is equal to 1/4 of A.

Hope that helps!
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by Chaitanya_1986 » Fri Apr 22, 2011 7:38 am
Thanks Stuart........Now i Got it.......
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