If x y and z are positive integers, is (x/y)^z>1?
(1)y-x=2
(2)z>1
Don't have an OA. Here is my take on it
(1)Statement 1 tells us that y>x and hence 0<x/y<1. We know that z>0. Hence irrespective of the +ve value of z the value of (x/y)^z will always be betn 0 and 1
(2)Statement 2 say z>1. By itself, no relation ship betn x and y is established hence insufficient.
Hence A. Is my logic correct?
(1)y-x=2
(2)z>1
Don't have an OA. Here is my take on it
(1)Statement 1 tells us that y>x and hence 0<x/y<1. We know that z>0. Hence irrespective of the +ve value of z the value of (x/y)^z will always be betn 0 and 1
(2)Statement 2 say z>1. By itself, no relation ship betn x and y is established hence insufficient.
Hence A. Is my logic correct?
