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SOME and MANY

Expert replies
by mmslf75 » Thu Dec 31, 2009 8:17 am
Guys,

I have read and heard that one must be cautious about the usage of MANY and/or SOME in answer choices.
How true it is in GMATland ?
and if so, how does one distinguish.
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Source: — Critical Reasoning |

by Testluv » Thu Dec 31, 2009 5:58 pm
"many" and "some" are not necessarily opposites at all. Technically, the numerical equivalency for each of these terms is just "one or more".

Typically, "many" is used to convey a sizeable proportion either where a) the exact proportion is unknown or b) where it is known to be less than a half yet still appreciable. "Few" typically conveys a quantity that is not sizeable or appreciable, and well under a half.

("most" technically establishes that the proportion is greater than a half. Typically, "most" is used to convey a very sizeable and appreciable proportion).

Common mistakes in interpretation are as follows: a) treating "many" and "some" as contrasts; b) assuming that "many" means a vast quantity; c) assuming that "some" means a paltry quantity.
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by mmslf75 » Fri Jan 01, 2010 6:10 am
Testluv wrote:"many" and "some" are not necessarily opposites at all. Technically, the numerical equivalency for each of these terms is just "one or more".

Typically, "many" is used to convey a sizeable proportion either where a) the exact proportion is unknown or b) where it is known to be less than a half yet still appreciable. "Few" typically conveys a quantity that is not sizeable or appreciable, and well under a half.

("most" technically establishes that the proportion is greater than a half. Typically, "most" is used to convey a very sizeable and appreciable proportion).

Common mistakes in interpretation are as follows: a) treating "many" and "some" as contrasts; b) assuming that "many" means a vast quantity; c) assuming that "some" means a paltry quantity.
Thanks...

But does GMAT test on this.. or is it imp for LSAT ??

PLease reply on this thread..as well link below

https://www.beatthegmat.com/market-analy ... 50081.html
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by Testluv » Fri Jan 01, 2010 12:22 pm
Thanks...

But does GMAT test on this.. or is it imp for LSAT ??

PLease reply on this thread..as well link below

For the GMAT, understanding the typical interpretations I outlined above and avoiding the common errors of interpretation are most important.
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by artistocrat » Tue Jan 05, 2010 10:08 pm
Thanks Testluv!
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by mmslf75 » Fri Jan 08, 2010 8:57 am
Testluv wrote:
Thanks...

But does GMAT test on this.. or is it imp for LSAT ??

PLease reply on this thread..as well link below

For the GMAT, understanding the typical interpretations I outlined above and avoiding the common errors of interpretation are most important.
@testluv
So basically MANY and SOME are equivalent

and choices which contain MANY in them can take SOME as well ?! ?
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by Testluv » Sun Jan 10, 2010 4:23 pm
@testluv
So basically MANY and SOME are equivalent
MANY and SOME are technically equivalent. However, typically MANY is used to convey a sizeable proportion (either where the exact proportion is unknown or where it is known to be less than a half). And, typically (and technically), SOME just means "at least one"....that should also answer your second question!
Kaplan Teacher in Toronto
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