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Question 3 (nov. 15th)

Expert replies
by bacali » Sat Nov 15, 2008 3:44 pm
Please help explain...
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Source: — Problem Solving |

by bacali » Sat Nov 15, 2008 3:44 pm
OA: D
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by parallel_chase » Sat Nov 15, 2008 4:01 pm
Current range = Highest - lowest = 112- 44 = 67

X - 20 = 56 - 20 = 36

Y + 20 = 94 + 24 = 118

Range = 118 - 36 = 82


Increase in range = 82 - 67 = 15

Hope this helps.
No rest for the Wicked....
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by cramya » Sat Nov 15, 2008 4:03 pm
Range = Highest Value - Lowest Value

Original Range = 112-45 = 67

20 shares of x sold so new x = 36 (this will become new lowest value)

24 shares of y bought = 94+24 = 118(this will be new highest value)

New Range = New highest value - New lowest value = 118-36 = 82

The difference between new range and old range is 82-67 = 15

D)
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by bacali » Sat Nov 15, 2008 4:25 pm
thanks guys.

BTW quick question for u guys, I already asked in another section...I just did Gmat prep n got a 650 (Q42V36) and had 10 mins left with verbal. Can I improve by 100 points in 4 weeks?

I am finishing up OG 10 and will go to OG 11 n Q n V guides after.
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by cramya » Sat Nov 15, 2008 5:55 pm
Can I improve by 100 points in 4 weeks
IMO If u think u can then u can. Just analyze areas of your weakness and try to work on that more for first 1-2 weeks.

Probably some of the GMAT experts on this forum can answer this question better so its good u posted it else where also.
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