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Probability ...

Expert replies
by camitava » Fri May 09, 2014 11:43 pm
I came up with the below mentioned question but have a hard time to understand the logic to solve the problem. OA is D

Appreciate your explanation ...

Image
Correct me If I am wrong


Regards,

Amitava
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Source: — Problem Solving |

by [email protected] » Sat May 10, 2014 12:26 am
Hi camitava,

This question can be solved by figuring out the "pattern" behind the math and/or using Prime Factorization.

First, a number that's divisible by 8 can be broken down into prime factors and will have at least three 2s among the primes.

For example,
16 is divisible by 8 because 16 = (2)(2)(2)(2) ….. it has three 2s in it.
18 is NOT divisible by 8 because 18 = (2)(3)(3) …. it has only one 2 in it.

So, we need to figure out if a number has three 2s in it or not, and we need to do so quickly. Let's see if we can figure out a pattern in this sequence of numbers….It's INTERESTING that we're dealing with 1 to 96, inclusive (and not 1 to 100); 96 is divisible by 8…..

If….
N=1 then 1(2)(3) does NOT divide by 8
N=2 then 2(3)(4) DOES divide by 8
N=3 then 3(4)(5) does NOT
N=4 then 4(5)(6) DOES
N=5 then 5(6)(7) does NOT
N=6 then 6(7)(8) DOES
N=7 then 7(8)(9) DOES
N=8 then 8(9)(10) DOES

Of the first 8 options, 5/8 of them are divisible by 8

Looking a bit deeper at the pattern, the fraction becomes a bit more obvious. An option is divisible by 8 if one of the following occurs:
1) A multiple of 8 is there.
2) Any two even numbers are there.

The above pattern will continue with every ensuing set of 8 terms; out of every 8, 5 of them will have what is necessary to divide by 8.

Final Answer: D

GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich
Contact Rich at [email protected]
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by GMATGuruNY » Sat May 10, 2014 2:57 am
If n is an integer from 1 to 96 (inclusive), what is the probability that n*(n+1)*(n+2) is divisible by 8?

A.1/4
B.1/2
C.5/8
D.7/8
E.3/4
Case 1: n(n+1)(n+2) = even*odd*even = multiple of 8:
Since every other even integer is a multiple of 4, the product here will always include an even integer and a multiple of 4, resulting in a multiple of 8.
Thus, n can be any even integer between 1 and 96.
96/2 = 48 favorable choices for n.

Case 2: n+1 is a multiple of 8:
The product will be a multiple of 8 if n+1 is a multiple of 8.
Number of multiples of 8 between 1 and 96 = 96/8 = 12.
Thus, there are 12 favorable choices for n+1, implying that there are 12 more favorable choices for n.

Total favorable choices for n = 48+12 = 60.
Favorable choices/Total choices = 60/96 = 5/8.

The correct answer is C.

Alternate solution:

n(n+1)(n+2) = the product of 3 consecutive integers.
WRITE IT OUT and LOOK FOR A PATTERN.

1*2*3
2*3*4
3*4*5
4*5*6
5*6*7
6*7*8
7*8*9
8*9*10


9*10*11
10*11*12
11*12*13
12*13*14
13*14*15
14*15*16
15*16*17
16*17*18


Each of the products in red is a multiple of 8.
The two examples above imply the following:
Of every 8 products, exactly 5 will be a multiple of 8.

Thus, the probability that n(n+1)(n+2) will be a multiple of 8 = 5/8.

For a similar problem, check here:

https://www.beatthegmat.com/probability-t116280.html
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