The only ground that I have used to eliminate E is the use of "as X as Y" in stead of "more X than Y". There is a difference between as --as and more--than.

To maintain the intended meaning of the sentence we need to stick to the original.

Am I right?

gmat_perfect wrote:Nowhere in Prakta is the influence of modern European architecture more apparent than their government buildings.

(A) more apparent than their
(B) so apparent as their
(C) more apparent than in its
(D) so apparent than in their
(E) as apparent as it is in its

[spoiler]OA: C[/spoiler]


Why is E wrong?

It in the option E can refer to only the influence because:

1. The influence is the subject of its clause, it is the subject of its clause.
2. The influence is singular, and it is singular.

I have ultimately chosen the OA, but I am in confusion about the option E.

Would any expert explain what is the wrong in E?

Thanks.

There are a few issues with E. First, although one can logically figure out what "it" refers to, having the same pronoun stand in for different antecedents is confusing in a way that isn't favored on the GMAT. Second, it slightly changes the original meaning. "More apparent" and "as apparent" don't mean quite the same thing, since something that isn't more apparent could be less apparent or equally apparent, while something that isn't as apparent could only be less apparent.
And finally, E is a wordier version of the same statement found in C. If all else fails, remember that conciseness is preferred on the test.

grockit_andrea wrote:

gmat_perfect wrote:Nowhere in Prakta is the influence of modern European architecture more apparent than their government buildings.

(A) more apparent than their
(B) so apparent as their
(C) more apparent than in its
(D) so apparent than in their
(E) as apparent as it is in its

[spoiler]OA: C[/spoiler]


Why is E wrong?

It in the option E can refer to only the influence because:

1. The influence is the subject of its clause, it is the subject of its clause.
2. The influence is singular, and it is singular.

I have ultimately chosen the OA, but I am in confusion about the option E.

Would any expert explain what is the wrong in E?

Thanks.

There are a few issues with E. First, although one can logically figure out what "it" refers to, having the same pronoun stand in for different antecedents is confusing in a way that isn't favored on the GMAT. Second, it slightly changes the original meaning. "More apparent" and "as apparent" don't mean quite the same thing, since something that isn't more apparent could be less apparent or equally apparent, while something that isn't as apparent could only be less apparent.
And finally, E is a wordier version of the same statement found in C. If all else fails, remember that conciseness is preferred on the test.

Thanks for clarification.

Very good question.
Good Explanation Andrea.
I was between C and E for long and couldnt decide. Your explanation clears my doubt.

Great explanation Andrea. I ruled out E on the grounds of confusing "IT".

great minds think alike

I am just kidding you are a great mind and I am just a "GMAT 700+" wannabe

indiantiger wrote:Great explanation Andrea. I ruled out E on the grounds of confusing "IT".

great minds think alike

I am just kidding you are a great mind and I am just a "GMAT 700+" wannabe

Hey, don't hesitate to refer to yourself as a "great mind"-- confidence is a huge part of the GMAT success equation!