BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course

Redeem

Target Test Prep · GMAT

Choose how you want to prepare

Learn live with an expert or move at your own pace. Every option includes the complete TTP study system.

★★★★★5.0559 reviews
GMATLiveTeach 7 seats left
Chris Peckover
NEXT LIVE COHORT

Oct 13 to Jan 7, 2027

with Chris Peckover

Schedule
Tue, Thu · 8:00 to 10:00 PM ET
Included
40 live hours + 6 months of GMAT OnDemand
  • Live instruction and real-time questions
  • Class recordings and assigned practice
View class & enroll
Limited cohort · enrollment openTarget Test Prep
EALiveTeach 5 seats left
Logan Thompson
EXECUTIVE ASSESSMENT

Sep 6 to Dec 6, 2026

with Logan Thompson

Schedule
Sun · 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM ET
Included
Live EA class + 6 months of EA OnDemand
  • Expert-led weekly online sessions
  • EA Masterclass access between classes
View EA class & enroll
Limited cohort · enrollment openTarget Test Prep
GMATOnDemand Start anytime
SELF-PACED MASTERCLASS

Target Test Prep GMAT OnDemand

Complete access from day one. Study on your schedule.

130-point score guarantee
$0to start then $127/mo
  • Personalized study plan and analytics
  • Thousands of lessons and practice questions

Compare the format, schedule, and included access before enrolling. Prices and seat counts shown reflect the supplied offer details.

OG Pg. 117 (Orange Book)

Expert replies
by clubtwofour » Tue Oct 28, 2008 4:31 pm
OG states the following regarding counting methods, "...each time a coin is flipped, there are two possible outcomes, heads and tails. If an experiment consists of 8 consecutive coin flips, then the experiment has 28 possible outcomes, where each of these outcomes is a list of heads and tails in some order."

How did OG calculate that there are 28 possible outcomes? Can someone show the math behind this?
Join the discussion
Source: — Problem Solving |

by lachlanc » Wed Oct 29, 2008 9:52 am
It is a permutation calculation - n!/k!(n-k)!

8C2 = 8!/2!6!

= 8*7/2 = 56/2 = 28
Join the discussion

by clubtwofour » Mon Nov 03, 2008 2:02 pm
That makes sense! Thanks!
Join the discussion

by cramya » Mon Nov 03, 2008 2:42 pm
If I am not mistaken the multiplication principle states that in counting the possibilits of independent events happenning u mutiply the possibilities of these indepenedent events (i.e what comes up in the 2nd flip is independent of what happenned in the 1st flip)


2*2*2*2*2*2*2*2 = 2 ^ 8

Hope this helps!
Join the discussion

by stop@800 » Mon Nov 03, 2008 7:22 pm
I agree with cramya, it should be 2^8.
Join the discussion

by curious_swan » Thu Sep 26, 2013 1:02 pm
when you flip the coin 8 times there are 256 (2^8) possible combinations (outcomes) considering the probability into account for eg.

it can be be

1. H, H, H, H, H, H, H, T
2. H, H, H, H, H, H, T, T
3. T, T, T, T, T. T, T, H
---
--
up to 256 combinations.
Join the discussion