Hello, I am confused by the explaination given for this question. Here it is:
If m>0 and x is m percent of y, then, in terms of m, y is what percent of x?
The answer given is 10000/m
I understand in the explanation that the equation would be set up initially as x=m/100(y). Then you convert it to y, so that would be 100/m(x)=y.
But then the explanation says that to convert the fraction 100/m to an equivalent percent, multiply by 100. This is the part I do not understand and was hoping for a broader explanation as to why I would do this? Thanks!
If m>0 and x is m percent of y, then, in terms of m, y is what percent of x?
The answer given is 10000/m
I understand in the explanation that the equation would be set up initially as x=m/100(y). Then you convert it to y, so that would be 100/m(x)=y.
But then the explanation says that to convert the fraction 100/m to an equivalent percent, multiply by 100. This is the part I do not understand and was hoping for a broader explanation as to why I would do this? Thanks!
