I know the GMAT is very specific when talking about whether x is an integer. However, on occasion a question is worded so that "integer" and "number" are interchangeable. For example, this DS question from the Kaplan Premier 2011 (pg 465, No. 6) states:
If p, q, and r are even numbers and 2 < p < q < s, what is the value of q?
1) r < 10
2) P < 6
I read this question and immediately was on guard for the trap, since they did not say "integer," I would not assume the numbers were 4, 6, and 8 respectively. The answer was A and the explanation was basically to assume they numbers were integers. Am I wrong to say that 2.2 is an even number? It is divisible by 2 with no remainder. If 2.2 is even than q can equal 6.2, 8, 8.8, etc and therefore 1 is insufficient.
Am I reading too deep into this?
If p, q, and r are even numbers and 2 < p < q < s, what is the value of q?
1) r < 10
2) P < 6
I read this question and immediately was on guard for the trap, since they did not say "integer," I would not assume the numbers were 4, 6, and 8 respectively. The answer was A and the explanation was basically to assume they numbers were integers. Am I wrong to say that 2.2 is an even number? It is divisible by 2 with no remainder. If 2.2 is even than q can equal 6.2, 8, 8.8, etc and therefore 1 is insufficient.
Am I reading too deep into this?
