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none or no one?!!

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by mehaksal » Mon Aug 06, 2012 4:23 am
People can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes gruesome works of art, but no one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.

(A) but no one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
(B) but none can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
(C) but not a one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
(D) but no person can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
(E) but none can dispute to their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrume
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by Kasia@EconomistGMAT » Mon Aug 06, 2012 5:39 am
B is the best answer. It is more concise than A.
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by ziko » Tue Aug 07, 2012 6:08 am
Kasia@MasterGMAT wrote:B is the best answer. It is more concise than A.
Can you please explain why B is the best, in particular difference between no one and none. And what is wrong with d?

Thanks! [/spoiler]
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by confuse mind » Tue Aug 07, 2012 6:24 am
mehaksal wrote:People can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes gruesome works of art, but no one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.

(A) but no one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
(B) but none can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
(C) but not a one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
(D) but no person can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
(E) but none can dispute to their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.

I feel all 3 A/b/D are correct.
What is the OA?


@Kasia can you please explain your reasoning.
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by Bill@VeritasPrep » Tue Aug 07, 2012 3:55 pm
"No one" is an indefinite noun and thus is singular. It is therefore not parallel to "people" in the first clause of the sentence.

"None" can be singular or plural.
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by confuse mind » Fri Aug 10, 2012 5:46 am
Bill@VeritasPrep wrote:"No one" is an indefinite noun and thus is singular. It is therefore not parallel to "people" in the first clause of the sentence.

"None" can be singular or plural.
Since these are 2 individual clauses connected by a conjunction, do you think there is a need to make the nouns(subjects) of these 2 parallel?

@mehaksal
What is the source of the question and OA?
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