https://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/the ... 26-15.html
I didnt really understand the following line
when you have a parallel structure, the common parts (here, "has ... money") are assumed to apply equally to both parts of the structure; applying that principle here leads to the conclusion that the present tense (has) is being applied to both halves of the parallel construction, including the second half (which is obviously a past event).
Why isnt the following sentence correct ?
I have more money now than i had in 1988 .
I didnt really understand why you applied "has " tense to both halves of the sentence
Similarly with
X has more money now than when the stock market crashed
Could You please explain ?
Regards
Hi RonRonPurewal
Post subject:
Post Posted: Wed Jul 30, 2008 4:50 am
Offline
ManhattanGMAT Staff
Posts: 5814
Anon wrote:
Hi Ron,
Could you please provide an example to clarify ... with adjectival and adverbial phrases...
X has more money now than when the stock market crashed
X has more money now than in 1988
X has more money than he had in 1988
are these all correct.... ???
thanks in advance -
i don't think the gmat would like any of these constructions all that much.
first two: the gmat would probably ding these for not changing the tensed verb. when you have a parallel structure, the common parts (here, "has ... money") are assumed to apply equally to both parts of the structure; applying that principle here leads to the conclusion that the present tense (has) is being applied to both halves of the parallel construction, including the second half (which is obviously a past event).
in other words: the second sentence expands as "x has more money now than he has in 1988". that's wrong.
the same type of thing applies to the first sentence - again, the second half needs a verb that's fixed in the past tense.
the third part seems fine, although there's something slightly undesirable about it (i can't put my finger on it exactly).
I didnt really understand the following line
when you have a parallel structure, the common parts (here, "has ... money") are assumed to apply equally to both parts of the structure; applying that principle here leads to the conclusion that the present tense (has) is being applied to both halves of the parallel construction, including the second half (which is obviously a past event).
Why isnt the following sentence correct ?
I have more money now than i had in 1988 .
I didnt really understand why you applied "has " tense to both halves of the sentence
Similarly with
X has more money now than when the stock market crashed
Could You please explain ?
Regards
I Seek Explanations Not Answers
