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Major trouble with pronouns

Expert replies
by Benni » Thu Oct 04, 2012 2:09 am
Hi Guys,

I am non-native speaker and have serious trouble to figure out whether a pronoun is ambigious or not. For example, let us consider the following sentence for a moment:

Gasoline has become so expensive that IT now consumes as much as 16% of personal income in some rural areas. (Source: Manhattan SC).

The Pronoun "IT" refers to Gasoline. But why couldn' t "IT" refer to personal income. Obvisouly, from an logical perspective it does not make sense to say "personal income (IT) consumes as much as 16% of personal income...". But I would like to focus on the grammar perspective solely.

Can anyone help, please.
Best regards,
Benni
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Source: — Sentence Correction |

by Kasia@EconomistGMAT » Thu Oct 04, 2012 3:54 am
A pronoun can be ambiguous, when two or more nouns precede it and each of them could possibly serve as a referent for the pronoun.
e.g. Using chest and dental x-rays, anthropological researchers have discovered a new method that can determine the age of a given individual, and though it is still being developed, it is already proving to be more effective than current methods.
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by avik.ch » Thu Oct 04, 2012 4:01 am
There is no rule for defining pronoun usage - its solely decided by context.

for more on this refer this OG problem : https://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/whi ... t8523.html


Hope this helps !!
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by Benni » Thu Oct 04, 2012 4:51 am
Thanks do both of you. Absolutely appreciate your help and got the point now. The Manhattangmat-Link is especially helpful.

Cheers.
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