\(m\) and \(n\) are both integers. Is \(m>n?\)

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by M7MBA » Thu Oct 07, 2021 5:57 am

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\(m\) and \(n\) are both integers. Is \(m>n?\)

(1) \(\dfrac{m}{n} > 1\)

(2) \(\dfrac{m-n}{n} < \dfrac{m-n}{m}\)

Answer: E

Source: e-GMAT

Source: Beat The GMAT — Data Sufficiency | Thu Oct 07, 2021 5:57 am

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