Your equation initially is
y=(1.44/3)-1/3*x
The slope is -1/3

2)
y=0.48 - 1/3*x

4)
y=10-1/3*x


0.48*3=1.44 so 2) and the initial equation are the same.
That's why they want you to take 4).

A line is parallel to itself is a little fool but I think it's true, so why can't we say that even if it's little redundant?

lali_mew wrote:Which of the following lines is parallel to line x=1.44-3y?
1)y = x/6 + 25
2)y = 0.48 - x/3
3)x/3 - y = 2
4)y + x/3 = 10
5)x/4 + 3y = 1

OA: 4

If the lines are parallel, the slope (-1/3) should be the same. Given that, how do we differentiate between 2 and 4 as the answer, since both have the slope as -1/3.

Can i know the source of the Question.. because both 2 and 4 are right .. we know 2 and the Question are same .but the principle is iof 2 line have same slope .. they are parallel,...

it would be good if u can let us know the source of the Question to quantify its Authenticity,..

I got it in one on the GMATclub tests. The M25.
I too was a little confused because both lines had the same slope and a line can always be parallel to itself!

hi i am sowree for re-opening this post .... but i dint understand a word!

could someone please elaborate!