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inequalities

Expert replies
Source: — Data Sufficiency |

by warlock » Wed Oct 15, 2008 10:26 pm
IMO D
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by sudharsong » Wed Oct 15, 2008 10:51 pm
IMO E
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by sudharsong » Wed Oct 15, 2008 10:52 pm
IMO E
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by raju232007 » Thu Oct 16, 2008 12:59 am
statement 1:

x>0
x is positive
no information about y

Insufficient

statement 2:

y<0
y is negative
no information about x

Insufficient

Combining both the statements we get

x is positive and y is negative

Let x=2 & y=-3
(x-y)/(x+y)=-5
Is -5>1 ....Ans is no

Let x=3 & y=-2
(x-y)/(x+y)=5
Is 5>1 ...Ans is yes

So the ans should be E....
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by rohangupta83 » Thu Oct 16, 2008 2:41 am
imo E
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by msvmuthu » Thu Oct 16, 2008 3:10 am
Why shouldnt we simplify the above given equation?

for example, in the above question I simplified the equation to:
y<0

since the first choice is x>0,
and since we have derived y<0;
(x-y) / (x+y) => will be like (x+y) /(x-y)
there fore surely, this will be greater than 1.

There fore my choice was A.

Please some one throw more light on this!
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by Ian Stewart » Thu Oct 16, 2008 3:57 am
msvmuthu wrote:Why shouldnt we simplify the above given equation?

for example, in the above question I simplified the equation to:
y<0

since the first choice is x>0,
and since we have derived y<0;
(x-y) / (x+y) => will be like (x+y) /(x-y)
there fore surely, this will be greater than 1.

There fore my choice was A.

Please some one throw more light on this!
There are two issues above- both are common mistakes, so important to understand:

First, you've 'simplified' the inequality to get y < 0, then used this as part of your solution. You can't do this: 'Is (x-y)/(x+y) > 1?' was the question; it's not a fact. If you assume that (x-y)/(x+y) > 1 is true, it shouldn't be surprising that you then discover that (x-y)/(x+y) > 1 is true; this is what's called 'begging the question' in logic. It can be a very good idea to simplify expressions like the one in the question above, but be clear about what you're doing: you are not deriving a fact; instead you are rephrasing the question.

Second, when you have an inequality, if you multiply both sides of the inequality by a negative, you must reverse the inequality. If, say, you know that

a/b > 1

you cannot multiply both sides by b and conclude that a > b, at least not without knowing something about b. It is certainly true that a > b if b is positive, but if b is negative, we would need to reverse the inequality; we would find that a < b. When you rewrote the inequality:

(x-y)/(x+y) > 1

to get y < 0, you were assuming x+y is positive. If x+y is negative, you need to reverse the inequality; you would find that y > 0.
For online GMAT math tutoring, or to buy my higher-level Quant books and problem sets, contact me at ianstewartgmat at gmail.com

ianstewartgmat.com
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by 4meonly » Thu Oct 16, 2008 11:59 pm
Somebody, please post the OA!!!
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by stop@800 » Fri Oct 17, 2008 12:25 am
4meonly wrote:Somebody, please post the OA!!!
has to be E
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by beater » Fri Oct 17, 2008 12:28 pm
OA - E. Apologize for the late reponse.
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by gkumar » Wed Oct 21, 2009 6:38 am
Ian, can you explain the fallacy in my logic as described here? https://www.beatthegmat.com/x-y-x-y-1-t47013.html
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