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In a 5-to-4 decision

Expert replies
by heymayank08 » Wed May 16, 2012 3:37 am
In a 5-to-4 decision,the Supreme Court ruled that two upstate New York counties owed restitution to three tribes of Oneida Indians for the unlawful seizure of their ancestral lands in the eighteenth century.
(A) that two upstate New York counties owed restitution to three tribes of 0neida Indians for the unlawful seizure of
(B) that two upstate New York counties owed restitution to three tribes of Oneida Indians because of their unlawful seizure of
(C) two upstate New York counties to owe restitution to three tribes of Oneida Indians for their unlawful seizure of
(D) on two upstate New York counties that owed restitution to three tribes of Oneida Indians because they unlawfully seized
(E) 0n the restitution that two upstate New York counties owed to three tribes of 0neida Indians for the unlawful seizure of

[spoiler]
OA: A even i got the correct, but my question here is that option A
uses " that .....owed "
but as a common rule where the comanding word approach is used it is said that we use "owe"
so why the usage of owed is correct here...
need help badly on this one..
thanks[/spoiler]
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Source: — Sentence Correction |

by veenitj » Wed May 16, 2012 7:32 am
IMO :A
Reason which compled me to select A is all the other options were out due to different reasons.

But I would also like to know the reason behind it.

Thanks,

VJ
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by vikram4689 » Wed May 16, 2012 8:40 am
but as a common rule where the comanding word approach is used it is said that we use "owe"
Where did you find this rule ?
"I owe him $1000" but after i have given him the money i'll say "I owed him $1000"
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by heymayank08 » Wed May 16, 2012 8:43 am
hey vikaram
this is an actual rule u'll find in any basic GMAT book..
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by joshmachine » Wed May 16, 2012 8:50 am
vikram4689 wrote:
but as a common rule where the comanding word approach is used it is said that we use "owe"
Where did you find this rule ?
"I owe him $1000" but after i have given him the money i'll say "I owed him $1000"
He is talking about the bossy verb 'ruled' so it requires verb 'owe' in subjunctive mood.
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by heymayank08 » Wed May 16, 2012 9:30 am
yes exactly..

seeking experts' help on this one..
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by e-GMAT » Wed May 16, 2012 10:34 am
heymayank08 wrote:yes exactly..

seeking experts' help on this one..
Hi Mayank,

The verb "rule" does not require the use of subjunctive verb. "Rule" is not a "boosy verb". Hence, the use of simple past tense "owed" is absolutely correct here.

Hope this helps.
Thanks
Shraddha
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by joshmachine » Wed May 16, 2012 11:01 am
e-GMAT wrote:
heymayank08 wrote:yes exactly..

seeking experts' help on this one..
Hi Mayank,

The verb "rule" does not require the use of subjunctive verb. "Rule" is not a "boosy verb". Hence, the use of simple past tense "owed" is absolutely correct here.

Hope this helps.
Thanks
Shraddha
Can you please explain why 'rule' is not a bossy very or, how to distinguish bossy verbs?
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