Live GMAT classes with Target Test Prep start Nov 21 and Nov 22. First class free.

See classes
Target Test Prep · GMAT

Choose how you want to prepare

Learn live with an expert or move at your own pace. Every option includes the complete TTP study system.

Newsweek Readers’ Choice Awards 2026 winner: Target Test Prep, #1 Test Prep

Target Test Prep was voted #1 Best Test Prep in the 2026 Newsweek Readers’ Choice™ Awards.

★★★★★5.0563 reviews
GMATLiveTeachStarts Nov 22
Josh Braslow, Target Test Prep GMAT expert
LIVE ONLINE CLASSES

Get Ready for GMAT Test Day Faster with Live Online Classes

with Josh Braslow, 20+ years in test prep

Nov 22 · Josh Braslow
Sun · 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM ET
Included
40 hours of live online classes + 6 months of TTP OnDemand
  • Attend the first class for free
  • Every class is recorded, so you never fall behind
View classes & enroll
Limited seats availableTarget Test Prep
EALiveTeachOnDemandStart anytime
EXECUTIVE ASSESSMENT

Target Test Prep EA OnDemand

Self-paced EA prep. Study on your schedule.

EXECUTIVE ASSESSMENT

with

165+ EA score guarantee
$05-day trial no automatic billing
Schedule
Included
40 hours of live online classes plus six months of access to the complete TTP EA OnDemand course.
  • 165+ EA Score Guarantee
  • 4,100+ Quant, Verbal, and Integrated Reasoning practice questions
  • 400+ hours of in-depth video lessons
  • 3,000+ step-by-step video solutions
View EA class & enroll Start free 5-day trial
Limited cohort · enrollment openTrial includes full course accessTarget Test Prep
GMATOnDemandStart anytime
SELF-PACED MASTERCLASS

Target Test Prep GMAT OnDemand

Complete access from day one. Study on your schedule.

715+ score guarantee
$0to start then $127/mo
  • Personalized study plan and analytics
  • Thousands of lessons and practice questions

Help on quant problem

Expert replies
by lukemacdougall » Sat Apr 27, 2013 2:10 pm
Hey guys - would someone mind helping explain the solution for the below problem? Thanks in advance!

For every positive even integer n, the function h(n) is defined to be the product of all the even integers from 2 to n, inclusive. If p is the smallest prime factor of h(100)+1, then p is...

a. between 2 and 10
b. between 10 and 20
c. between 20 and 30
d. between 30 and 40
e. greater than 40
Join the discussion
Source: — Problem Solving |

by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Sat Apr 27, 2013 2:44 pm
lukemacdougall wrote:Hey guys - would someone mind helping explain the solution for the below problem? Thanks in advance!

For every positive even integer n, the function h(n) is defined to be the product of all the even integers from 2 to n, inclusive. If p is the smallest prime factor of h(100)+1, then p is...

a. between 2 and 10
b. between 10 and 20
c. between 20 and 30
d. between 30 and 40
e. greater than 40
Important Concept: If k is a positive integer that’s greater than 1, and if k is a factor (divisor) of N, then k is not a divisor of N+1
For example, since 7 is a factor of 350, we know that 7 is not a factor of (350+1)
Similarly, since 8 is a factor of 312, we know that 8 is not a factor of 313

Now let’s examine h(100)
h(100) = (2)(4)(6)(8)….(96)(98)(100)
Factor to get: h(100) = 2[(1)(2)(3)(4)….(48)(49)(50)]

Since 2 is in the product of h(100), we know that 2 is a factor of h(100), which means that 2 is not a factor of h(100) +1 (based on the above rule)

Similarly, since 3 is in the product of h(100), we know that 3 is a factor of h(100), which means that 3 is not a factor of h(100) +1 (based on the above rule)

Similarly, since 5 is in the product of h(100), we know that 5 is a factor of h(100), which means that 5 is not a factor of h(100) +1 (based on the above rule)

.
.
.
.
Similarly, since 47 is in the product of h(100), we know that 47 is a factor of h(100), which means that 47 is not a factor of h(100) +1 (based on the above rule)

So, we can see that none of the primes from 2 to 47 can be factors of h(100) +1, which means the smallest prime factor of h(100)+ 1 must be greater than 47.

Answer = E

Cheers,
Brent
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
Image
Join the discussion

by GMATGuruNY » Sun Apr 28, 2013 2:21 am
For every positive even integer n, the function h(n) is defined to be the product of all even integers from 2 to n, inclusive. If p is the smallest prime factor of h(100) + 1, the p is

A: Between 2 & 10
B: Between 10 & 20
C: Between 20 & 30
D: Between 30 & 40
E: Greater than 40
Since the difference between them is 1, h(100) and h(100)+1 are consecutive integers.
Consecutive integers are COPRIMES: they share no factors other than 1.

Let's examine why:

If x is a multiple of 2, the next largest multiple of 2 is x+2.
If x is a multiple of 3, the next largest multiple of 3 is x+3.

Using this logic, if we go from x to x+1, we get only to the next largest multiple of 1.
So 1 is the only factor common both to x and to x+1.
In other words, x and x+1 are COPRIMES.

Thus:
h(100) and h(100)+1 are COPRIMES. They share no factors other than 1.

h(100) = 2 * 4 * 6 *....* 94 * 96 * 98 * 100
Factoring out 2, we get:
h(100) = 2^50 (1 * 2 * 3 *... * 47 * 48 * 49 * 50)

Looking at the set of parentheses on the right, we can see that every prime number between 1 and 50 is a factor of h(100).
Since h(100) and h(100)+1 are coprimes, NONE of the prime numbers between 1 and 50 can be a factor of h(100)+1.

Thus, the smallest prime factor of h(100) + 1 must be greater than 50.

The correct answer is E.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.

As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.

For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3
Join the discussion

by ygdrasil24 » Sun Apr 28, 2013 7:16 am
@Brent: Got your point. Can we not generalise it further to say.
For any K being divisor of N, K will not be divisor for N , N+1, N+2....N+(k-1).

Ex: say 105 is divisible by 5, so 106,107,108,019 will also be not divisible, so a period of (divisor-1). Pls confirm it.

Thanks :)
Join the discussion

by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Sun Apr 28, 2013 7:36 am
ygdrasil24 wrote:@Brent: Got your point. Can we not generalise it further to say.
For any K being divisor of N, K will not be divisor for N , N+1, N+2....N+(k-1).

Ex: say 105 is divisible by 5, so 106,107,108,019 will also be not divisible, so a period of (divisor-1). Pls confirm it.

Thanks :)
That's a great (and true) generalization. Nice work.

Cheers,
Brent
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
Image
Join the discussion

by Matt@VeritasPrep » Sun Apr 28, 2013 7:17 pm
ygdrasil24 wrote:@Brent: Got your point. Can we not generalise it further to say.
For any K being divisor of N, K will not be divisor for N , N+1, N+2....N+(k-1).

Ex: say 105 is divisible by 5, so 106,107,108,019 will also be not divisible, so a period of (divisor-1). Pls confirm it.

Thanks :)
Hi Ygdrasil!

Trivial note: this isn't true for any divisor of N, only for divisors of N not equal to 1.

A safer and broader way of stating your (excellent!) assertion is that if K is a factor of N, then K is a factor of N + R if and only if K is also a factor of R.

One way you could write this: say N = K*m and R = K*p, where m and p are integers. Then N + R = K*m + K*p = K * (m+p), so (N + R) is divisible by K.

Now say R is NOT divisible by K, so R = K*q + z, where q is an integer and z is a nonzero integer less than K. Then (N + R) = K*m + K*q + z = K*(m+q) + z ... which isn't divisible by K, because you have a remainder, namely z.

(If all that felt like alphabet soup, ignore it and go with the more intuitive explanation above!)
Join the discussion