has - been

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mundasingh123: Legendary Member; Posts: 2330; Joined: Fri Jan 15, 2010 5:14 amFollowed by: 26 members; Thanked: 56 times

by mundasingh123 » Fri Jul 29, 2011 10:55 am

An array of tax incentives has led to a boom in the construction of new office buildings; so abundant has
capital been for commercial real estate that investors regularly scour the country for areas in which to build.
(A) so abundant has capital been for commercial real estate that
(B) capital has been so abundant for commercial real estate, so that
(C) the abundance of capital for commercial real estate has been such,
(D) such has the abundance of capital been for commercial real estate that
(E) such has been an abundance of capital for commercial real estate,
Is it incorrect to seperate "has " and "been " in D ?

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Source: Beat The GMAT — Sentence Correction | Fri Jul 29, 2011 10:55 am

gmat25: Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts; Posts: 189; Joined: Wed Jul 06, 2011 6:57 amFollowed by: 1 member; Thanked: 17 times

by gmat25 » Fri Jul 29, 2011 5:35 pm

No, i don't think so. Why??? compare Op D with the OA Op A

In Op A, the noun is Capital, while in Op D, the noun is Abundance

In Op A, has been is separated in the same way as in Op D

"has capital been" and " has the abundance of capital been"

In both the cases u have noun b/w HAS and BEEN. By the way, u must be knowing that this is a passive voice construction.

Princeton Review CAT - 710(Q-51, V-37) --> silly mistakes screwed up my VERBAL

mundasingh123: Legendary Member; Posts: 2330; Joined: Fri Jan 15, 2010 5:14 amFollowed by: 26 members; Thanked: 56 times

by mundasingh123 » Fri Jul 29, 2011 9:29 pm

gmat25 wrote:No, i don't think so. Why??? compare Op D with the OA Op A

In Op A, the noun is Capital, while in Op D, the noun is Abundance

In Op A, has been is separated in the same way as in Op D

"has capital been" and " has the abundance of capital been"

In both the cases u have noun b/w HAS and BEEN. By the way, u must be knowing that this is a passive voice construction.

OG 10 rejects D for this reason that has and been are seperated

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aspirant2011: Legendary Member; Posts: 1574; Joined: Fri Jan 28, 2011 2:52 amFollowed by: 13 members; Thanked: 88 times

by aspirant2011 » Sat Jul 30, 2011 9:30 am

I feel has + been should be together........

gmat25: Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts; Posts: 189; Joined: Wed Jul 06, 2011 6:57 amFollowed by: 1 member; Thanked: 17 times

by gmat25 » Sat Jul 30, 2011 7:17 pm

aspirant2011 wrote:I feel has + been should be together........

In that case OA op A will also be correct. Mostly we use has been together, atleast we Indians use these words in this way as we are comfortable in this way only. I believe even OG people doesn't wanna test this specific knowledge that why they added an other major error in Op D.

Princeton Review CAT - 710(Q-51, V-37) --> silly mistakes screwed up my VERBAL

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