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GMAT PREP II QUESTION 2

Expert replies
by kajcha » Fri Sep 21, 2007 2:52 pm
Both machines together produce 16000 pencils in 1 hour

So in 6 hours they wil produce 96000 pencils

Remaining 4000 will be produced in next 15 mins.

So, each macihne should run for 6.25 hours.
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Source: — Problem Solving |

by kajcha » Fri Sep 21, 2007 4:31 pm
aah.. I didn't notice "at least" part of the Q..

Now, In max of 8 hours machine A will produce 9000*8 = 72000 pencils.

Remaining 28000 need to be produced by machine B.

So, min no of hours machine B should run = 28000/7000 = 4

Sorry for confusion
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by wongee » Sun Sep 23, 2007 12:52 pm
Dee,

How DID you do on the exam. Hope it went off well.
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