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Equivalent fractions/ratios

Expert replies
by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Tue May 12, 2009 1:43 pm
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Please note that this is not an official GMAT question; it’s my attempt to create mid-range (500 to 650-level) GMAT-style questions for this forum.
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
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Source: — Data Sufficiency |

by cramya » Tue May 12, 2009 4:33 pm
A


Is w/x = y/z

Is wz-xy/xz = 0

We know xz <> 0 therefore the question boils down to Is wz-xy=0 (I.E WZ=XY)

Stmt I

w/y = x/z

wz-xy/yz = 0


yz<>0 therefore wz-xy = 0

SUFF

Stmt II

wy=xz

x=y=w=z=1 YES
x=2 y=2 w=1 z=1 NO

INSUFF

Hope I din't fall for a trap.

Regards,
CR
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by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Tue May 12, 2009 5:47 pm
Nice work, Cramya.

Here's my solution as well

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by cramya » Tue May 12, 2009 7:04 pm
Thanks Brent for the solution.
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by lunarpower » Wed May 13, 2009 2:56 am
not bad. and very gmat-like, too. well done.

only one comment:
WHENEVER you talk about "cross multiplication", you should always note that this only works for equations.

after all, there isn't really a such thing as "cross multiply"; cross-multiplication is really just multiplication by both denominators.

if you're using an INEQUALITY, then this can get you into big, big trouble. unless you know the sign of the product of the denominators (which is equivalent to knowing whether the denominators have the same sign), you can't "cross multiply" because you won't know what will happen to the inequality sign.

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in sum:

if you get a PROPORTION (i.e., fraction EQUALS fraction), you can and should cross-multiply.

if you get an INEQUALITY with two fractions, unfortunately, you have to leave it in fractional form unless you know the relative signs of the denominators.
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