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by aditya8062 » Sat Oct 04, 2014 10:00 am
The new government requires employers to inform an employee of their legal right to holidays and overtime pay.

a) employers to inform an employee of their
b) employers to inform employees that he has a
c) employers to inform employees that there is a
d) that employers inform an employee of their
e) that employers inform the employees that they have a

my doubt: i feel that option C is making a huge shift in meaning. to say that "there is a legal right to ...." is much different in meaning than to say that "employes have a legal right....." . how can C ignore such a nuance and still be right?
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by Matt@VeritasPrep » Sat Oct 04, 2014 10:24 am
I agree - the correct answer is poor, to say the least. But lots of "correct" answers to official SC questions are terrible too, so it's good to get used to them.

On this problem, I'd eliminate a few clear violations: the GMAC (as far as I know) never allows "they/them/their" to refer to a singular noun, so A and C are out. (We can't call an employee "they".) B has another such mistake: we can't refer to "employees" as "he". E has two errors: we wouldn't use "the" before employees in this sentence, and "they" is ambiguous: do the EMPLOYERS have that right, or the EMPLOYEES?

So by process of elimination, the answer is C, but you're right: the crux of the sentence is that the employees have a legal right, not merely that such a right exists, so the "correct" answer is lousy.
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