P1: Doctors in britain have long suspected that people who wear tinted glasses are prone to depression
P2: Psychological tests confirm the relationship
P3: People who have had a life that is psychologically painful, choose to wear the glasses to reduce visual stimulation because it is perceived as irritating
C: A person who wears the glasses, does so, because he/she is prone to depression
Now, lets take a look at the options
A: This could be an assumption for what causes depression, the causes of depression are out of our scope. Eliminated
B: Nowhere is a relationship between tinted glasses, and distancing from people mentioned in the argument. Eliminated.
C: Causes of depression, again, out of our scope. Eliminated.
D: This need not be the case, the argument doesn't state that the hypochondriac wears the glasses to give a signal to the others. This is again deviating from the argument. Eliminated.
E: This is a necessary assumption in the argument, if the glasses dim the light enough to depress the mood, then the glasses end up being the cause of depression rather than a means of relief from depression.
Only if the glasses are assumed not to dim the light enough to depress the mood of the wearer, will the above argument hold.
Is caught between a rock and a hard place!