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by Chaitanya_1986 » Wed May 11, 2011 10:51 am
Bob Wilber became Sidney Bechet's student and protégé when he was nineteen and, for a few years in the 1940's, came as close to being a carbon copy of the jazz virtuoso in performance as anyone has ever come.
(A) as anyone has ever come
(B) as anyone ever had been
(C) as anyone ever had done
(D) that anyone ever did
(E) that anyone ever came


OA A
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by HSPA » Wed May 11, 2011 5:07 pm
1) as close as
2) parallel wording : came
First take: 640 (50M, 27V) - RC needs 300% improvement
Second take: coming soon..
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HSPA.
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by Chaitanya_1986 » Wed May 11, 2011 9:56 pm
Hey HSPA/ Others could you please why the usage of had is wrong here??? I thought had is correct because it happened in past and ended some time in past and its still not continuing...But since answer is A.

Could any one explain this paradox?
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by sandy217 » Wed May 18, 2011 7:05 am
Chaitanya_1986 wrote:Hey HSPA/ Others could you please why the usage of had is wrong here??? I thought had is correct because it happened in past and ended some time in past and its still not continuing...But since answer is A.

Could any one explain this paradox?
Am worried noone answered your question
https://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/bob ... t4297.html

Check Ron's explanation !!

Summary for thread visitors:
Usage of both" had and has " is correct here.But they convey different meanings.As we retain the meaning of the original sentence(as it makes sense) B cannot be correct.
One more reason is placement of ever, this is also distorted (compared to original sentence).
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by aspirant2011 » Wed May 18, 2011 8:54 am
Hi Chaitanya,

usage of "had" is wrong because initial part of the sentence talks about "came" but option B talks about "ever had been" both of which are not in the same direction.........i hope it clears
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by Stuart@KaplanGMAT » Wed May 18, 2011 1:24 pm
Chaitanya_1986 wrote:Hey HSPA/ Others could you please why the usage of had is wrong here??? I thought had is correct because it happened in past and ended some time in past and its still not continuing...But since answer is A.

Could any one explain this paradox?
Hi,

based on the original sentence, it is still happening - that's exactly why we use has.

Unless there's an egregious error in the original, we should take the original to be an accurate picture of the author's intended meaning. Since the author says "has ever come", the author must mean that, even to this day, no one has come closer to being a carbon copy of Bechet as did Wilber.

Changing to "had ever come" alters the meaning of the sentence and should, accordingly, be avoided.
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