before and after

IMO B

Only B correctly states that Sir Joseph lent his name after the campaign was successful

wats the OA ?

sparsh.21 wrote:IMO B

Only B correctly states that Sir Joseph lent his name after the campaign was successful

wats the OA ?

And also B uses the past perfect contionus tense correctly to express the sequences of the actions.

"had been eventually successful" - is that correct ?

- pradeep

pbanavara wrote:"had been eventually successful" - is that correct ?

- pradeep

Why not?

One more vote for (B).

Moreover, (A) does not join both clauses. It makes both clauses independent whereas this should be adverbial clause that should answer the question "why"

Why did Sir Joseph Lister lent his name to first antibacterial product ?
Because his sanitary awareness campaign had (been) successful.

In short, this is an example of Adverbial clause that shows the relationship of CAUSE.

In such cases, the clause that shows the CAUSE (reason) of an event should have greater degree of tense to the degree of tense of that event.

Sounds Alien ?

A is correct because it use "absolute phrase"

but I do not know why B, and C is wrong,

Pls, explain

I did more research on net.

Unfortunately OA is (A). (Which I feels is run over sentence).

Others discourage the uses of HAD BEEN in option (B). Looks like I need to do more research on uses of BEEN in the sentences.

Still I hold the option (B) as correct one for me.

codesnooker wrote:

pbanavara wrote:"had been eventually successful" - is that correct ?

- pradeep

Why not?

One more vote for (B).

Moreover, (A) does not join both clauses. It makes both clauses independent whereas this should be adverbial clause that should answer the question "why"

Why did Sir Joseph Lister lent his name to first antibacterial product ?
Because his sanitary awareness campaign had (been) successful.

In short, this is an example of Adverbial clause that shows the relationship of CAUSE.

In such cases, the clause that shows the CAUSE (reason) of an event should have greater degree of tense to the degree of tense of that event.

Sounds Alien ?

u bet .. I don't quite get into such details. My only gripe was the phrase 'had been eventually successful'. Eventually denotes a present/future action. If it had been omitted and the phrase was just "had been successful" I would've gone for it.

I guess keeping the overall tense of the sentence in view, option A would be the best, like you've stated but am still not convinced that it's the right answer.

I got this explanation from some grammar notes
"
Since / Because
GMAT tends to abuse the word "since" as a substitution for "because". look at the answer choices and you will see that most of the time (if not always), "since" is used together with time. for example "since 1999....". be careful with any answer choice that uses "since" instead of "because".
"

This can be one explanation for B not being correct.

"Since" is generally used in the case of present perfect description.

for eg:
I have been working since 2000.

present perfect : has been and have been.

But in option B since is used with had been(past perfect) which is wrong. So we can eliminate B

The reason I eliminated C in favor of B was not the slight difference between 'since' and 'because of' but the wordiness of 'his campaigning' that appeared in C. 'his campaigning for sanitary conditions in operating rooms' sounds as if the action of campaining is held in operating rooms.

Hi OA is A only. For those who choosed B, OA mention that use of since in the meaning of because is incorrect in gmat

Can anyone precisely explain why A and not B?

Manhattan GMAT states that if a sentence starts with 'Since' or 'Within' then the sentence must use Present Perfect.

In this sentence we use Past Perfect so it seems the use of Since is not correct here as according to the sequence of events, past perfect would be correct.

Are you sure A is correct. It makes no sense at all. The underlined portion is not a subordinate clause, or an independent clause, as it lacks a subject, verb