@shreeman

Interesting!! I guess that's what makes English a funny language.

shreeman wrote:Affirmative sentence - He speaks spanish. (correct)
interrogative sentence - Does he speak spanish. (correct) --- why "s" is removed from the verb speak when we are asking a ques? Now speak is plural here.

i got confused after reading a sentence in chpater 2 MGMAT SC

Does everyone have their book - thier is incorrect becasue evreryone is singular and that's why we are using does to ask a question.

Does everone have his/her book - in day to day conversation we use "have" only not "has" but i want to know grammatical reason behind the use of "have"?

shreeman wrote:Affirmative sentence - He speaks spanish. (correct)
interrogative sentence - Does he speak spanish. (correct) --- why "s" is removed from the verb speak when we are asking a ques? Now speak is plural here.

i got confused after reading a sentence in chpater 2 MGMAT SC

Does everyone have their book - thier is incorrect becasue evreryone is singular and that's why we are using does to ask a question.

Does everone have his/her book - in day to day conversation we use "have" only not "has" but i want to know grammatical reason behind the use of "have"?

Speak isn't plural in "Does he speak Spanish?" nor is have in "Does everyone have his/her book?"

When you invert subject and verb in asking a question, you need to have an auxiliary verb (like do) unless the verb is already an auxiliary verb. Thus:

Statement: He can speak Spanish. Question: Can he speak Spanish?
Statement: He speaks Spanish. Question: Does he speak Spanish?

When you add an auxiliary verb like do, do is the one that gets inflected -- gets its ending changed for person and number -- rather than speak. Speak stays in its plain form, the one you see in the infinitive to speak . . . which looks the same as the plural form.

Now, i got it

Thanks a lot