Live GMAT classes with Target Test Prep start Nov 21 and Nov 22. First class free.

See classes
Target Test Prep · GMAT

Choose how you want to prepare

Learn live with an expert or move at your own pace. Every option includes the complete TTP study system.

Newsweek Readers’ Choice Awards 2026 winner: Target Test Prep, #1 Test Prep

Target Test Prep was voted #1 Best Test Prep in the 2026 Newsweek Readers’ Choice™ Awards.

★★★★★5.0563 reviews
GMATLiveTeachStarts Nov 22
Josh Braslow, Target Test Prep GMAT expert
LIVE ONLINE CLASSES

Get Ready for GMAT Test Day Faster with Live Online Classes

with Josh Braslow, 20+ years in test prep

Nov 22 · Josh Braslow
Sun · 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM ET
Included
40 hours of live online classes + 6 months of TTP OnDemand
  • Attend the first class for free
  • Every class is recorded, so you never fall behind
View classes & enroll
Limited seats availableTarget Test Prep
EALiveTeachOnDemandStart anytime
EXECUTIVE ASSESSMENT

Target Test Prep EA OnDemand

Self-paced EA prep. Study on your schedule.

EXECUTIVE ASSESSMENT

with

165+ EA score guarantee
$05-day trial no automatic billing
Schedule
Included
40 hours of live online classes plus six months of access to the complete TTP EA OnDemand course.
  • 165+ EA Score Guarantee
  • 4,100+ Quant, Verbal, and Integrated Reasoning practice questions
  • 400+ hours of in-depth video lessons
  • 3,000+ step-by-step video solutions
View EA class & enroll Start free 5-day trial
Limited cohort · enrollment openTrial includes full course accessTarget Test Prep
GMATOnDemandStart anytime
SELF-PACED MASTERCLASS

Target Test Prep GMAT OnDemand

Complete access from day one. Study on your schedule.

715+ score guarantee
$0to start then $127/mo
  • Personalized study plan and analytics
  • Thousands of lessons and practice questions

average problem- any solun by plugging of nos

Expert replies
by kishokbabu » Tue Dec 13, 2011 9:36 am
If W>Y, the average of X and Y is Z, and the average of Z and X is W, what is the value of (X-W)/(W-Y)=?

a) 1/4
b) 1/3
c) 1/2
d) 3
e) 4

Correct Answer .: B

Kindly suggest whether plugging of numbers will work for this problem and some better option to solve it in easy ways?
Join the discussion
Source: — Problem Solving |

by shankar.ashwin » Tue Dec 13, 2011 9:40 am
W,X,Y and Z are 4 variables used.

Average of X and Y is Z

Let X = 0, Y = 2. Therefore Z = 1

Average of Z and X is W

Z = 1 and X = 0. Therefore W = 1/2

You're asked (X-W)/(W-Y) = (0-1/2) / (1/2-2) = -1/2 / (-3/2) = [spoiler]1/3 [/spoiler]
Join the discussion

by rijul007 » Tue Dec 13, 2011 10:06 am
The best approach to do this question is by plugging in numbers

Let us say x = 40 and y = 20
Avg of x and y = z = (20+40)/2 = 30

Avg of z and x = w = (20+30)/2 = 35

(x-w)/(w-y) = (40-35)/(35-20) = 5/15 = 1/3

Option B
Join the discussion

by kishokbabu » Tue Dec 13, 2011 10:11 am
HI shankar.ashwin

As per your plugging of numbers it does not match with the question,

As per qn, W should be greater than Y, but in your plugging you got W=1/2 and Y=2 this is wrong.

Iam not sure whether the qn is correct r wrong. If the condition W>Y is not given in qn then your approach is correct.

So any one pls check if W> Y then we can get the same answer as 1/3.
Join the discussion

by Mdewan » Tue Dec 13, 2011 10:12 am
The problem states W>Y,
Equation 1: X+Y/2=Z
Equation 2: Z+X/2=w

Solving Equation 1 & 2
X+Y=2Z Z+X=2w => Z=2W-X

X+Y=2(2W-X)
3X+Y=4W => X=(4W-Y)/3...Equation 3

We need to find (x-w)/(w-y)
Sub Equation 3 to solve

((4W-Y)/3 -W)/ (W-Y)
= 1/3
Join the discussion

by rijul007 » Tue Dec 13, 2011 10:22 am
kishokbabu wrote:HI shankar.ashwin

As per your plugging of numbers it does not match with the question,

As per qn, W should be greater than Y, but in your plugging you got W=1/2 and Y=2 this is wrong.

Iam not sure whether the qn is correct r wrong. If the condition W>Y is not given in qn then your approach is correct.

So any one pls check if W> Y then we can get the same answer as 1/3.

The statement W>Y .. doesnt really play any part in the solution
Because either way we would get the same solution

W>Y would correspond to X>Y which further means X>W
So (X-W)/(W-Y)= +ve

W<Y corresponds to Y>X which further means X<W
(X-W)/(W-Y)= -ve/-ve = +ve [The magnitude remaining the same]
Join the discussion

by shankar.ashwin » Tue Dec 13, 2011 10:26 am
Sorry didnt notice that while reading. But as rijul pointed out, the solution remains the same, just pick up a set of numbers which satisfy W>Y, you would still get the same answer for this question
Join the discussion