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by thailandvc » Mon Aug 31, 2009 8:24 pm
As of this morning, none of my friends have been able to solve the puzzle contained in last week's newspaper.

A) none of my friends have been able to solve
B) none of my friends was able to solve
C) not one of my friends has yet been able to solve
D) none of my friends has been able to solve
E) nobody among my friends have solved

I picked A. Wrong. OA is D. Can someone explain why D is correct? Going by MGMT, "none" is one of those indefinite pronoun that relies what is after "of," since "friends" is plural the verb has to be plural- not according to Kaplan.
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by riteshbindal » Mon Aug 31, 2009 8:31 pm
what's the source of this question?
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by thailandvc » Mon Aug 31, 2009 8:42 pm
Kaplan 800 pg 135. If they are wrong, it would be very funny because the explanation is a little condescending in the tone of "duh, you should've already known that, that is 600 level question this is Kaplan 800 it is only getting harder from here, we will teach you all the 'advance' techniques" It is the very first question in the verbal part of the book.
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by capnx » Mon Aug 31, 2009 9:28 pm
yea Kaplan's explanation is really weak. According to Kaplan (p135), "None is singular (like every or everyone)..." not exactly true, lol.

I'd follow the MGMT and not this Kaplan rule.
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Re: As of

by WannaBThere » Mon Aug 31, 2009 10:18 pm
IMO A (The Manhattan Way :))

"none" in itself is singular. But if "of" follows it, then number is determined by the noun following "of".

a> correct
b> "..was.."
c> awkward and use of "..has.."
d> "..has.."
e> distorts meaning
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