"Among consumers in this country who take cruises regularly, the percentage who chose High Seas' cruise lines has decreased by 5 percentage points over the past five years. Since High Seas obviously relies on consumers to earn profits, these declines must have had a measurably negative impact on High Seas' earnings.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?

(A) Some trips were cut from the cruise schedule, and they were trips during which ticket sales had historically been sufficient to achieve profitability.
(B) There are many more cruise lines in existence today than there were five years ago.
(C) The number of people who regularly take cruises has increased significantly over the past five years.
(D) Five years ago, High Seas reduced the number of cruises on its annual schedule.
(E) High Seas cruises travel to several different destinations."




I have a doubt in this argument.

I thought its talking about decrease in percentage of High Seas consumers so option C significant increase
in number of people will not have an impact because clearly states over last 5 year there has been a drop of 5% point

I am not able to understand where I am going wrong.

Say total consumers (5 year before)= 100
Blue cruise consumers (5 year before)= 20

Now there is an increase in overall number of cosumers means say= 200 (this is during the 5 years)
But question says there is a drop in Blue Line cosnumers..I am referring this decrease from 20 and am not imagining any increase here.

Will be great if someone can help me !!