You've made a small mistake in your calculation
its 20% of 10 = 2 and not 20% of 100

As per C does it mean that all the dogs that participate attend the FOTC?
If this is the case then no untrained dog can participate which sort of goes against the conclusion. Because it can be inferred from the conclusion that there are atleast some untrained dogs that participate.

The other options A, D,E are irrelevant to the discussion.

gmat009 wrote:A study showed that only 10% of American dog owners enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes. More than 20% of these dog owners, the study also showed, participate in dog shows. Thus, it is obvious that people who train their dogs are more likely to participate in dog shows than are people who do not train their dogs.
The conclusion above is correct provided which of the following is true?

A) It is impossible for a dog to compete in a dog show if the dog has not completed at least one formal obedience training class

B) The proportion of dog owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes is representative of the proportion who train their dogs outside such classes

C) Dog owners who participate in the dog shows only train their dogs by enrolling them in formal obedience training lessons

D) Participation in dog shows is a reliable indicator of how much attention a dog owner pays to his dog

E) Only purebred dogs can participate in dog shows, so many owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes are excluded from this activity

Plz. explain

gmat009 wrote:A study showed that only 10% of American dog owners enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes. More than 20% of these dog owners, the study also showed, participate in dog shows. Thus, it is obvious that people who train their dogs are more likely to participate in dog shows than are people who do not train their dogs.
The conclusion above is correct provided which of the following is true?

There is meaning shift here:

Obedience training classes participants ARE named as people who trained their dogs.

So one way to weaken this conclusion would be to find an alternative explanation than TRAINING to participate in dog shows.

But since we are looking for a SUPPORT, lets hunt for an answer choice that says trained dogs are participating in shows.

A) It is impossible for a dog to compete in a dog show if the dog has not completed at least one formal obedience training class

If it is impossible, there would not be any other people in shows.

B) The proportion of dog owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes is representative of the proportion who train their dogs outside such classes

10% = proportion who train their dogs outside such classes - it actually WEAKENS the conclusion.

C) Dog owners who participate in the dog shows only train their dogs by enrolling them in formal obedience training lessons

If you want your dog in that show, you should better get him in the classes! - It supports the conclusion and IMO it is the correct answer here



D) Participation in dog shows is a reliable indicator of how much attention a dog owner pays to his dog

Attention paid ? It is cute but not inside our scope


E) Only purebred dogs can participate in dog shows, so many owners who enroll their dogs in formal obedience training classes are excluded from this activity

PUREBRED ? - out of scope