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ambiguous pronoun and modifier

Expert replies
by manhhiep2509 » Wed Jan 08, 2014 7:02 pm
Hello.

The OG says choice C in question 75 of review verbal 2 is incorrect because "Its does not have a referent".
I guess "referent" means to a noun, isn't it?
"Baltic Sea" is an adjective, so "Its" cannot refer to "Baltic Sea".

I made the below sentence up, but I saw some correct sentences in OG have the same structure.

John's new novel is interesting, but his new poem is very boring.

"John's" is not a noun but an adjective, and "his" could refer to a noun "John".
Why is the sentence correct? what is the difference between the two sentences?
---------------

OG explanation says choice E in the same question is incorrect because "consistent illogically describes the Baltic Sea."

It seems that adjective phrase, such as "consistent with ....", cannot refer to entire preceding sentence even though the phrase is separated from the preceding clause by "a comma".
Is it correct?

Thank you.
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Source: — Sentence Correction |

by Patrick_GMATFix » Wed Jan 15, 2014 10:12 pm
a "referent" is a noun to which a pronoun refers.

"Baltic Sea" is not an adjective. It is a noun, similar to "United States". Therefore, it can serve as a referent to the pronoun "its".

In the sentence "John's new novel is interesting, but his new poem is very boring", "John's" is not an adjective but a possessive noun. This is a noun followed by apostrophe + s and indicate to whom something belongs (in this case, to whom the new novel belongs).

"his" in "his new poem" is a possessive pronoun (it indicates to whom the new poem belongs). Possessive pronouns can be used to refer to possessive nouns. That is why the sentence you made up is correct.

If you have trouble making sense of the OG explanations, consider a source that has more in-depth explanations to OG questions. The solution below is taken from the GMATFix App.

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-Patrick
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