sarthak wrote:After suffering $2 billion in losses and 25,000 layoffs, the nation's semiconductor industry, which makes chips that run everything from computers and spy satellites to dishwashers, appears to have made a long-awaited recovery.

(A) computers and spy satellites to dishwashers, appears to have

(B) computers, spy satellites, and dishwashers, appears having

(C) computers, spy satellites, and dishwashers, appears that it has

(D) computers and spy satellites to dishwashers, appears that it has

(E) computers and spy satellites as well as dishwashers, appears to have

source 100 SC. Will post the OA later.

The correct idiom here is "from X to Y"
i.e. "from computers and spy satellites to dishwashers"

Rules out all the options except A

we say "everything from X to Y" and not "everything X, Y and Z" or "everything X, Y as well as Z"

Another reason is -- "which makes chips that run ..." says that the chips are still made.

Also, "it" is redundant here in D and C.

hi hrishi i beg to differ.

this from...to idiom is maintained in two sentences. A and D. Others are definitely out. Among the two A is using have while D is using has. The subject of the sentence is nation’s semiconductor industry a singular phrase. So we should use has (the singular verb) instead of have (the plural verb).

I agree that it is redundant but subject-verb agreement takes precedence over redundancy so IMO is D.

OA will be provided when asked by the community

sarthak wrote:hi hrishi i beg to differ.

this from...to idiom is maintained in two sentences. A and D. Others are definitely out. Among the two A is using have while D is using has. The subject of the sentence is nation’s semiconductor industry a singular phrase. So we should use has (the singular verb) instead of have (the plural verb).

I agree that it is redundant but subject-verb agreement takes precedence over redundancy so IMO is D.

OA will be provided when asked by the community

I understand your concern here. But in this question "have made" has been used in the infinitive form.


For example : I have made progress in my GMAT.

I has made progress in my GMAT.

Which is correct? ofcourse 1st one.

You are absolutely correct that for singular we use "has" and not "have" but there is an exception.

If you are using infinitive(to) then it should follow with a plural "have" and not "has"

Remember "to" should always follow with a plural verb

Example :

Ron appears to have made the substitution possible.

Or in terms of D in the original question :We cannot write " Ron appears that he has made substitution possible"

the correct form is "It appears that Ron has made the substitution possible" --which is not there in answer options.

Now, in D because of "appears that" the meaning changes.

semiconductor industry appears to have made a long-awaited recovery.

semiconductor industry appears that it has made a long-awaited recovery.

See the Difference in their meaning.

Similar Example :

He appears to have made a long-awaited recovery.

He appears that He has made a long-awaited recovery.


Can we write "he appears that"? No.
So we should use infinitive here "appears to have"

wow ... amazing explanation man.. thanks a lot .. mind tutoring me ?

IMO A

OA??

OA is A

Great Explanation Hrishi..

ThankS!

two idioms
everything form x to y
appears to...
not appears that.

as simple as it is, OA=A