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1000 CR , Test 5 , q 20

Expert replies
by hopefully » Mon Sep 03, 2007 9:13 pm
For a local government to outlaw all strikes by its workers is a costly mistake, because all its labor disputes must then be settled by binding arbitration, without any negotiated public-sector labor settlements guiding the arbitrators. Strikes should be outlawed only for categories of public-sector workers for whose services no acceptable substitute exists.
The statements above best support which of the following conclusions?
(A) Where public-service workers are permitted to strike, contract negotiations with those workers are typically settled without a strike.
(B) Where strikes by all categories of pubic-sector workers are outlawed, no acceptable substitutes for the services provided by any of those workers are available.
(C) Binding arbitration tends to be more advantageous for public-service workers where it is the only available means of settling labor disputes with such workers.
(D) Most categories of public-sector workers have no counterparts in the private sector.
(E) A strike by workers in a local government is unlikely to be settled without help from an arbitrator.
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Source: — Critical Reasoning |

by givemeanid » Tue Sep 04, 2007 5:22 am
"For a local government to outlaw all strikes by its workers is a costly mistake, because all its labor disputes must then be settled by binding arbitration" means the arbitration is advantageous for workers otherwise it would not be 'costly' for the government. C it is
So It Goes
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by sochatte » Tue Sep 04, 2007 9:37 am
I would go with C
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by micheal_kr » Tue May 03, 2016 4:42 am
i also will choose C.
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