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1/5 is equal to 0 with remainder of 1?

Problem Solving — algebra and arithmetic
Expert replies
by bpdulog » Sun Nov 20, 2011 12:14 pm
"1/5 is equal to 0 with remainder of 1."

This statement was made in GMAT Data Sufficiency Lesson 8. How is this even possible?
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Source: — Quantitative Reasoning |

by shankar.ashwin » Sun Nov 20, 2011 12:28 pm
I think it should read 1 when divided by 5, quotient is 0 and remainder is 1.
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by bpdulog » Mon Nov 21, 2011 4:19 am
How is that possible? I understand how there is a remainder when the number is larger than the divisor e.g., 14/6 = 2 with a remainder of 2. But how does this work with fractions?
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by neelgandham » Mon Nov 21, 2011 5:58 am
bpdulog wrote:How is that possible? I understand how there is a remainder when the number is larger than the divisor e.g., 14/6 = 2 with a remainder of 2. But how does this work with fractions?
Let me make it easy for you!
e.g.1: dividend > divisor.Let dividend = 14 and divisor = 6
14 = 12 + 2 = 2*6 + 2. If you divide 14 by 6,(2*6 + 2)/6 = 2 + 2/6. So the numerator of the left over(fraction) is the remainder(2).
e.g.1: dividend < divisor.Let dividend = 1 and divisor = 5
1 = 0*5 + 1. If you divide 1 by 5, (0*5 + 1)/5 = 0 + 1/5. So the numerator of the left over(fraction) is the remainder(1)

Hope it helps !
Anil Gandham
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