BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course

Redeem

OG 16 Question 27

This topic has expert replies
Post new topic Locked
Previous Topic Next Topic
User avatar
Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Posts: 65
Joined: Sun Jun 03, 2012 8:58 am
Thanked: 1 times

OG 16 Question 27

by Neilsheth2 » Mon Sep 14, 2015 12:53 am

Timer

00:00

Your Answer

A

B

C

D

E

Global Stats

In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet, which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet.

A. which itself had been adapted earlier
B. adapting itself earlier
C. itself being adapted earlier
D. having been earlier adapted itself
E. earlier itself having been adapted

I am confused with the usage of HAD in OA A.

Could some one justify the usage of HAD-since had was previously used for Etruscan Alphabet. The Greek alphabet was also adapted in the same period but a little early in the century ?-IS that why the usage of HAD okay?
Top
Source: — Sentence Correction |
User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 266
Joined: Fri Sep 19, 2014 4:00 am
Thanked: 4 times
Followed by:1 members

by conquistador » Mon Sep 14, 2015 4:50 am

Timer

00:00

Your Answer

A

B

C

D

E

Global Stats

In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet, which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet.

A. which itself had been adapted earlier
B. adapting itself earlier
C. itself being adapted earlier
D. having been earlier adapted itself
E. earlier itself having been adapted

Since the adaption event happened way back in the past, there is no place for present or present continuous or present perfect tense.
only A satisfies the criteria of past perfect tense.
Could some one justify the usage of HAD-since had was previously used for Etruscan Alphabet. The Greek alphabet was also adapted in the same period but a little early in the century ?-IS that why the usage of HAD okay?
The list of events timewise
1. In the sixth century(remember previous century in sentence), Greek alphabet had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet.
2. In the sixth century, Etruscan alphabet had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet
3. In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet
Top
User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 15539
Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pm
Location: New York, NY
Thanked: 13060 times
Followed by:1906 members
GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Mon Sep 14, 2015 7:41 am

Timer

00:00

Your Answer

A

B

C

D

E

Global Stats

Neilsheth2 wrote:I am confused with the usage of HAD in OA.
One purpose of the past perfect (had + VERBed) is to express an action completed before another past event.
In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet, which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet.
Here:
The portion in red serves to express an action completed before the Roman alphabet was adapted.
The portion in blue serves to express an action completed before the Etruscan alphabet had been adapted.
The usage of three time-modifiers -- in the seventh century B.C., in the previous century, earlier in the same century -- makes the sequence of events clear.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.

As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.

For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3
Top
Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 9
Joined: Wed Oct 26, 2016 12:25 am

by hardwork » Mon Oct 31, 2016 11:49 pm

Timer

00:00

Your Answer

A

B

C

D

E

Global Stats

GMATGuruNY wrote:
Neilsheth2 wrote:I am confused with the usage of HAD in OA.
One purpose of the past perfect (had + VERBed) is to express an action completed before another past event.
In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet, which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet.
Here:
The portion in red serves to express an action completed before the Roman alphabet was adapted.
The portion in blue serves to express an action completed before the Etruscan alphabet had been adapted.
The usage of three time-modifiers -- in the seventh century B.C., in the previous century, earlier in the same century -- makes the sequence of events clear.
Dear GMATGuruNY Sir!
I am confused with the use of "itself"in C&E, could you explain it? "Itself" refers to the Greek alphabet? OR It is ambiguous to figure it out? And the "itself+V-ing" modifies which part of the sentence?
Thanks in advance!
Top
User avatar
Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 6
Joined: Thu Dec 29, 2016 1:24 am

by victory » Fri Dec 30, 2016 1:33 am

Timer

00:00

Your Answer

A

B

C

D

E

Global Stats

so can i say that
had done shows an action which happen before an action presented by had done, have done and did.
Top
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 186
Joined: Sat Dec 24, 2016 12:38 am
Thanked: 5 times
Followed by:3 members

by rsarashi » Fri Dec 30, 2016 9:06 am

Timer

00:00

Your Answer

A

B

C

D

E

Global Stats

One purpose of the past perfect (had + VERBed) is to express an action completed before another past event.
In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet, which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet.
Here:
The portion in red serves to express an action completed before the Roman alphabet was adapted.
The portion in blue serves to express an action completed before the Etruscan alphabet had been adapted.
The usage of three time-modifiers -- in the seventh century B.C., in the previous century, earlier in the same century -- makes the sequence of events clear.
[/quote]


Hi GMATGuruNY ,

can you please explain that why B is wrong?

Thanks
Top
Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 1
Joined: Mon Mar 19, 2018 10:13 pm

Ttt

by applechen » Wed May 16, 2018 5:37 pm

Timer

00:00

Your Answer

A

B

C

D

E

Global Stats

GMATGuruNY wrote:
Neilsheth2 wrote:I am confused with the usage of HAD in OA.
One purpose of the past perfect (had + VERBed) is to express an action completed before another past event.
In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet, which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet.
Here:
The portion in red serves to express an action completed before the Roman alphabet was adapted.
The portion in blue serves to express an action completed before the Etruscan alphabet had been adapted.
The usage of three time-modifiers -- in the seventh century B.C., in the previous century, earlier in the same century -- makes the sequence of events clear.
I am also curious about why B is wrong.

COMMA + VERBing
A modifying phrase that begins with COMMA + VERBing typically exhibits the following characteristics:
-- the VERBing refers to the subject of the preceding clause.
-- the VERBing expresses an action that is contemporaneous with -- that takes place at the same time as -- the action of the preceding clause.
-- the modifying phrase modifies the entire preceding clause.

I feel like answer B is modifying the subject of the preceding clause, "which" (Etruscan Alphabet). Is it not true?
COMMA + VERBing modifier also adopt the tense of the preceding clause. In this case, it is the past perfect tense. So I am confused why answer B is incorrect.

Also, in the OA, isn't "itself" is redundant?

GMATGuruNY , would you please help me out? Thank you so much!
Top
User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 15539
Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pm
Location: New York, NY
Thanked: 13060 times
Followed by:1906 members
GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Fri May 18, 2018 5:45 am

Timer

00:00

Your Answer

A

B

C

D

E

Global Stats

applechen wrote:I am also curious about why B is wrong. !
One reason to eliminate B:
Generally, a COMMA + VERBing modifier must serve to express an action that is concurrent with the nearest preceding action.
B implies the following:
The Etruscan alphabet in turn had been adapted, adapting itself earlier.
Here, the COMMA + VERBing action in red is performed EARLIER and thus is NOT concurrent with the preceding action in blue.
Eliminate B.
in the OA, isn't "itself" is redundant?
The following pronouns can serve to add emphasis to an antecedent noun:
himself, herself, itself, themselves.
When used to add emphasis, these pronouns are known as EMPHATIC PRONOUNS or INTENSIVE PRONOUNS.
Their purpose is convey that the antecedent noun is remarkable in some way.
Example:
The king himself scrubbed the throne.
Here, the purpose of himself is to add emphasis to the king.
The implication is that THE KING is remarkable in some way.
More specifically, the king is remarkable because he scrubbed the throne -- a surprising action for a king.

Generally, the usage of an intensive pronoun is optional.
If an intensive pronoun is omitted, the essential meaning of the sentence will still be conveyed.

In the OA, the second which refers to a western Greek alphabet, conveying the following meaning:
The western Greek alphabet itself had been adapted earlier.
Here, the purpose of itself is to add emphasis to the western Greek alphabet.
This usage is optional but is not considered redundant.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.

As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.

For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3
Top
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 181
Joined: Mon Jul 20, 2015 2:27 pm
Followed by:8 members

by [email protected] » Thu Mar 07, 2019 4:54 pm

Timer

00:00

Your Answer

A

B

C

D

E

Global Stats

Hello Everyone!

While there is already some great discussion on this question, let's take a look at it to determine how to answer this question as quickly as possible. That way, you can get to the harder GMAT questions more easily! Before we dive in, here is the original question, with the major differences between each option highlighted in orange:

In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet, which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet.

(A) which itself had been adapted earlier
(B) adapting itself earlier
(C) itself being adapted earlier
(D) having been earlier adapted itself
(E) earlier itself having been adapted

After a quick glance over the options, the only major difference we see is the verbs, so let's focus on that!

To determine which verb tense we need to use, we first need to figure out the order in which these events happened. Since they all happened in the past, we will need to use a combination of past tense and past perfect tense. Here is how the events in this sentence work in a timeline:

Greek alphabet was adapted from Phoenician alphabet --> Etruscan alphabet was adapted from Greek alphabet --> Roman alphabet was adapted from Etruscan alphabet

The event that happens in the past gets plain ol' past tense, which we see in the original sentence (...the Roman alphabet was adapted from...). This means any event that occurs further in the past requires past perfect tense!

Let's see which options use the correct past perfect tense to show the proper order of events:

(A) which itself had been adapted earlier --> GOOD
(This uses past perfect tense to show that the event happened before another past event, so we'll keep this for later!)

(B) adapting itself earlier --> BAD
(This doesn't work because it turns the phrase "adapting itself earlier" into a modifier for Etruscan alphabet. It also suggests that the alphabet adapted itself, which doesn't make logical sense. An alphabet isn't a person, so it can't change by itself!)

(C) itself being adapted earlier --> BAD
(This also doesn't work because it also suggests that the alphabet adapted itself. It also uses past tense, and we need past perfect tense for it to work.)

(D) having been earlier adapted itself --> BAD
(This option is written using past tense, and it's in passive voice. We're looking for past perfect tense here, so this doesn't work.)

(E) earlier itself having been adapted --> BAD
(This option uses past tense, which isn't what we're looking for. We want past perfect tense instead.)

There you have it - option A is the only one that uses past perfect to show the order of events correctly!


Don't study for the GMAT. Train for it.
Top
Post new topic Locked
• Page 1 of 1