In given problem, I am a bit confused. What does it mean by "The range of the set of integers from x to y inclusive " ? Is it = the normal range - 1?
I assumed x and y to be 1 and 32. Solving further, the statement 2 contradicted statement 1 and I felt I had made wrong assumptions of values. Please explain.
If x and y are positive integers, and y > x, what is the median of the set of consecutive integers from x to y?
(1) The range of the set of integers from x to y inclusive is 31.
(2) The mean of the set of integers from x to y inclusive is 16.
a- Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not.
b- Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not.
c- Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
d- EITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question.
e- Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.
Answer is B
What does range... inclusive mean ?
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- vikram4689
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inclusive means both are number are included
-----0-----a------b----- range a and b inclusive means a and b are included.
i.e. range = b-a+1
e.g. range of 3 and 5 inclusive = 5-3+1=3 (can be seen otherwise as 3,4,5)
anyways this does not effect this question at all.
1) is insufficient because we don't show a or b
2) is sufficient because for any constant difference series mean=median. you can prove it by taking series as n, n+1... but you don't have to.
-----0-----a------b----- range a and b inclusive means a and b are included.
i.e. range = b-a+1
e.g. range of 3 and 5 inclusive = 5-3+1=3 (can be seen otherwise as 3,4,5)
anyways this does not effect this question at all.
1) is insufficient because we don't show a or b
2) is sufficient because for any constant difference series mean=median. you can prove it by taking series as n, n+1... but you don't have to.
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