I'm fairly certain that in this case, "favor" is used idiomatically. It's a way of saying that the discrepancy in wages -- the unfairness of the male vs. female pay difference -- works to the advantage of men, as they get higher wages for equitable work.Jatinder wrote:I will try to put my 2 cents here
Discrimination in wages paid in occupations that are predominantly male over the predominantly female have given rise to substantial differentials between the wage of housepainters and secretaries and between the wages of parking-lot attendants and library assistants.
(A) paid in occupations that are predominantly male over the predominantly female have
(B) paid in occupations that are predominantly make over those that are predominantly female have
(C) that favors predominantly male occupations over the predominantly female have
(D) that favors predominantly male occupations over those that are predominantly female has
(E) paid in predominantly male occupations over the predominantly female has
D is not correct bcoz of the meaning...
Discrimination in wages that favors predominantly male occupations ....
favours is singular here, so we would assume that it is reffering to Discrimination
Now I am just wondering that Discrimination can also favor???
May be, if somebody by the name Discrimination is favouring X, but that will sound quite stupid, although not impossible..
E is correct bcoz of the ellipse(in bold):
paid in predominantly male occupations over the predominantly female [occupations] has
This is just my guess, so be careful about my explanation.
How did you know that an ellipse could be used correctly in "E"...what is the grammatical rule there?
This is a brutal GMAT question!












