If an integer n is to be chosen at random from the integers 1 to 96, inclusive

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If an integer n is to be chosen at random from the integers 1 to 96, inclusive, what is the probability that n(n + 1)(n + 2) will be divisible by 8?

A. 1/4
B. 3/8
C. 1/2
D. 5/8
E. 3/4

Answer: D
Source: official guide
Source: — Problem Solving |

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BTGModeratorVI wrote:
Wed Dec 16, 2020 12:51 pm
If an integer n is to be chosen at random from the integers 1 to 96, inclusive, what is the probability that n(n + 1)(n + 2) will be divisible by 8?

A. 1/4
B. 3/8
C. 1/2
D. 5/8
E. 3/4

Answer: D
Source: official guide
Solution:

We are given that an integer n will be chosen at random from the integers 1 to 96, inclusive, and we need to determine the probability that n(n + 1)(n + 2) will be divisible by 8.

We should recall that when a number is divisible by 8, it is divisible by 2^3, i.e., three factors of 2. We should also recognize that n(n + 1)(n + 2) is the product of three consecutive integers.

Case 1: n is even. Any time that n is even, n + 2 will also be even. Moreover, either n or n + 2 will be divisible by 4, and thus n(n + 1)(n + 2) will contain at least three factors of 2 and will be divisible by 8.

Since there are 96 integers between 1 and 96, inclusive, and half of those integers are even, there are 48 even integers (i.e., 2, 4, 6, …, 96) from 1 to 96, inclusive. Thus, when n is even, there are 48 instances in which n(n + 1)(n + 2) will be divisible by 8.

Case 2: n is odd. If n is odd, then n(n + 1)(n + 2) still can be divisible by 8 if the factor (n + 1) (which is the only even number among n, n + 1 and n + 2) is a multiple of 8. So, let’s determine the number of multiples of 8 between 1 and 96 inclusive.

Number of multiples of 8 = (96 - 8)/8 + 1 = 88/8 + 1 = 12. Thus, when n is odd, there are 12 instances in which n(n + 1)(n + 2) will be divisible by 8.

There is no overlap for the results of Case 1 and Case 2, so we can simply add the two results. In total, then, there are 48 + 12 = 60 outcomes in which n(n + 1)(n + 2) will be divisible by 8.

Thus, the probability that n(n + 1)(n + 2) is divisible by 8 is: 60/96 = 10/16 = 5/8.

Answer: D

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BTGModeratorVI wrote:
Wed Dec 16, 2020 12:51 pm
If an integer n is to be chosen at random from the integers 1 to 96, inclusive, what is the probability that n(n + 1)(n + 2) will be divisible by 8?

A. 1/4
B. 3/8
C. 1/2
D. 5/8
E. 3/4

Answer: D
Source: official guide
First recognize that n, n+1 and n+2 are 3 CONSECUTIVE INTEGERS.

Now let's make some observations:

When n = 1, we get: (1)(2)(3), which is NOT divisible by 8
n = 2, we get: (2)(3)(4), which is DIVISIBLE BY 8
n = 3, we get: (3)(4)(5), which is NOT divisible by 8
(4)(5)(6), which is DIVISIBLE BY 8
(5)(6)(7), which is NOT divisible by 8
(6)(7)(8), which is DIVISIBLE BY 8
(7)(8)(9), which is DIVISIBLE BY 8
(8)(9)(10), which is DIVISIBLE BY 8
-----------------------------
(9)(10)(11), which is NOT divisible by 8
(10)(11)(12), which is DIVISIBLE BY 8
(11)(12)(13), which is NOT divisible by 8
(12)(13)(14), which is DIVISIBLE BY 8
(13)(14)(15), which is NOT divisible by 8
(14)(15)(16), which is DIVISIBLE BY 8
(15)(16)(17), which is DIVISIBLE BY 8
(16)(17)(18)which is DIVISIBLE BY 8
-----------------------------
.
.
.
The pattern tells us that 5 out of every 8 products is divisible by 8.
So, 5/8 of the 96 products will be divisible by 8.
This means that the probability is 5/8 that a given product will be divisible by 8.

Answer: D
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