Hi,
I also get C) but with different method, could someone confirm whether it's correct.
I simplified the inequality in the statement:
1/p > r/(r^2+2)
1/p - r/(r^2+2) > 0
(r^2+2-rp)/(p(r^2+2)) > 0
(r(r-p)+2)/(p(r^2+2)) > 0
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2)
we only know that r/(r^2+2) is positive, nothing else -> INSUFFICIENT
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1)
p=r, hence the above simplify to:
2/(p(r^2+2)) > 0
as (r^2+2) is always positive, then 2/(p(r^2+2)) > 0 is positive if p is positive, we don't know it -> INSUFFICIENT
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1)+2)
we have (r(r-p)+2)/(p(r^2+2)) > 0
knowing that p=r we can simplify: 2/(p(r^2+2)) > 0
if p=r and r>0 -> p>0
if p>0 then 2/(p(r^2+2)) > 0 is positive -> SUFFICIENT