BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course

Redeem

Target Test Prep · GMAT

Choose how you want to prepare

Learn live with an expert or move at your own pace. Every option includes the complete TTP study system.

★★★★★5.0559 reviews
GMATLiveTeach 7 seats left
Chris Peckover
NEXT LIVE COHORT

Oct 13 to Jan 7, 2027

with Chris Peckover

Schedule
Tue, Thu · 8:00 to 10:00 PM ET
Included
40 live hours + 6 months of GMAT OnDemand
  • Live instruction and real-time questions
  • Class recordings and assigned practice
View class & enroll
Limited cohort · enrollment openTarget Test Prep
EALiveTeach 5 seats left
Logan Thompson
EXECUTIVE ASSESSMENT

Sep 6 to Dec 6, 2026

with Logan Thompson

Schedule
Sun · 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM ET
Included
Live EA class + 6 months of EA OnDemand
  • Expert-led weekly online sessions
  • EA Masterclass access between classes
View EA class & enroll
Limited cohort · enrollment openTarget Test Prep
GMATOnDemand Start anytime
SELF-PACED MASTERCLASS

Target Test Prep GMAT OnDemand

Complete access from day one. Study on your schedule.

130-point score guarantee
$0to start then $127/mo
  • Personalized study plan and analytics
  • Thousands of lessons and practice questions

Compare the format, schedule, and included access before enrolling. Prices and seat counts shown reflect the supplied offer details.

Value of n??

Expert replies
Source: — Problem Solving |

by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Fri Jan 15, 2010 10:41 am
apoorva.srivastva wrote:If 1/(n+1)<1/31+1/32+1/33<1/n, n=?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12
(E) 13
please solve it algebraically!!
I don't believe an algebraic solution is the way to go here.
First, recognize that 1/33 < 1/32 (and 1/33 < 1/31)
So, we know that 1/33 + 1/33 + 1/33 < 1/31 + 1/32 + 1/33
We should also see that 1/33 and 1/32 are very close in value so we might say that (1/33 + 1/33 + 1/33) is just a little bit less than (1/31 + 1/32 + 1/33)

Also recognize that 1/33 + 1/33 + 1/33 = 1/11
So 1/33 + 1/33 + 1/33 < 1/31 + 1/32 + 1/33 can be rewritten as 1/11 < 1/31 + 1/32 + 1/33

Compare this to the inequality in our question: 1/(n+1)<1/31+1/32+1/33
We can see that n+1 = 11, which means n=10
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
Image
Join the discussion

by apoorva.srivastva » Fri Jan 15, 2010 10:56 am
wowwieeee...great approach!!
thanks brent!!
Join the discussion

by zonda12 » Fri Jan 15, 2010 9:52 pm
Just a little concern: how in the hell is an average person supposed to come up with that approach in under minutes? I mean, my math is decent, but no way near the level of thinking of that on the spot. I don't wish to belittle your answer, because you are indeed a genuius; I'm merely curious.

Is this a normal (easy/mid) question for gmat, or is this considered at a hard one (750+ score) one?
Join the discussion

by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Fri Jan 15, 2010 10:53 pm
zonda12 wrote:Just a little concern: how in the hell is an average person supposed to come up with that approach in under minutes? I mean, my math is decent, but no way near the level of thinking of that on the spot. I don't wish to belittle your answer, because you are indeed a genuius; I'm merely curious.

Is this a normal (easy/mid) question for gmat, or is this considered at a hard one (750+ score) one?
That's a valid point. Sometimes when explaining a solution to a problem it's easy to make it sound like one just steps up and . . . voila . . . everything just falls into place. The actual process is much more complex, and seldom so straightforward.

Here's another way to tackle the question:
First, I'd love to know the sum of 1/31 + 1/32 + 1/33 without actually doing all of the calculations.
One option would be to conclude that, since 1/32 falls between the other two fractions, then 1/31 + 1/32 + 1/33 should be approximately equal to 1/32 + 1/32 + 1/32 = 3/32

At this point I ask how 3/32 compares with 1/n and 1/(n+1)

I know that 3/32 is a little less than 1/10 since 3.2/32 would be equal to 1/10
I also know that 3/32 is greater than 1/11 since 3/33 = 1/11
So, from here, I could conclude that 1/11 < 1/31 + 1/32 + 1/33 < 1/10

The original question features the inequality 1/(n+1) < 1/31 + 1/32 + 1/33 < 1/n
So, we can see that 1/11 = 1/(n+1) . . . which means n=10

I'm finding it hard to predict the degree of difficulty on this one. I'm going to go out on a limb and say it falls somewhere around 650 (even though I should be predicting an approximate raw score :-))
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
Image
Join the discussion